How did Barnabas, being a Levite possess a land, while the Levites were instructed not to possess lands of their own (Numbers 18:20-21; Deuteronomy 10:8-9) as per the law?
The levites were instructed not to possess any land of their own. Being so, how come Barnabas sell a land while the law being against even possessing a land?
Acts 4:36 - 37