Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army

If the question is intended to inquire about Psalm 36:13 (instead of Psalm 36:16), I would say that the variance of the numbering of the verses apparently arises from the fact that, in some versions of the Bible, the attributive description at the beginning of the psalm (which is similar in form to that found in multiple other psalms) is counted as the first verse of the psalm, while in other Bible versions, the attributive description is treated as an introduction that is not counted as a verse (which, I would say, is the more common practice throughout the book of Psalms).

In translations where the attributive description is counted and numbered as the first verse of the psalm, the entire psalm will have thirteen verses. In translations where the attributive description is treated as an introduction rather than a verse, the entire psalm will have twelve verses. However, as far as I can determine, each rendering of the psalm has the same verbiage. It is just a question of whether or not the attributive description is treated as a verse (which appears to be a decision of an editorial nature not having a bearing on the psalm's overall meaning).

August 04 2019 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report