How did Barnabas, being a Levite possess a land, while the Levites were instructed not to possess lands of their own (Numbers 18:20-21; Deuteronomy 10:8-9) as per the law?

The levites were instructed not to possess any land of their own. Being so, how come Barnabas sell a land while the law being against even possessing a land?

Acts 4:36 - 37

ESV - 36 Thus Joseph, who was also called by the apostles Barnabas (which means son of encouragement), a Levite, a native of Cyprus. 37 Sold a field that belonged to him and brought the money and laid it at the apostles' feet.

Clarify Share Report Asked August 20 2014 My passport new Arun Kumar

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