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How did Barnabas, being a Levite possess a land, while the Levites were instructed not to possess lands of their own (Numbers 18:20-21; Deuteronomy 10:8-9) as per the law?

The levites were instructed not to possess any land of their own. Being so, how come Barnabas sell a land while the law being against even possessing a land?

Acts 4:36 - 37

ESV - 36 Thus Joseph, who was also called by the apostles Barnabas (which means son of encouragement), a Levite, a native of Cyprus. 37 Sold a field that belonged to him and brought the money and laid it at the apostles' feet.

Clarify Share Report Asked August 20 2014 My passport new Arun Kumar

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1347200391 Braden Mcdonald
Barnabas, as a convert to Christ, was no longer under the Levitical Law. While the passage states that he was of the tribe of Levi, it does not say that, as a Christian, he continued to participate in any Levitical worship. Therefore, he could easily have acquired land after his conversion, which put him in a position to be able to sell it and donate the proceeds to the fledgling Christian church.

January 15 2015 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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1434907864 Noelle Congdon
My thought is that the difference is two-fold. 1. Where Barnabas lived, Cyprus, not Israel, and, 2. His individuality as different from his being a part of the "tribe" of Levites. From what I've read, the tribe could not buy and sell the land on which they lived. Barnabas had bought land as an "individual" in another land. This, then, was not a conflict. Obviously, the disciples saw no conflict as Barnabas became a highly respected member of their group.

April 04 2016 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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