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Why do we suddenly see "the Lord's Day" in this verse, and never before this verse, in the Bible?

This term, 'the Lord's Day' appears in this the last book of the Bible.  Why here, and never before?  Shouldn't every day be the Lord's Day?

Clarify Share Report Asked 7 days ago Mini Shirley H Supporter

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Mini Paula Fether Supporter Lifelong student of the scriptures
"The Lord's Day" and "The Day of the Lord" are grammatically interchangeable in the original languages. So which way to render it in English is a matter of whether the translators consider "Lord" or "Day" the word to be emphasized in context. But the Bible only uses the term "first day of the week" for what we today call Sunday; it never equates "the Lord's Day/Day of the Lord" with that, and it wasn't used by the church until about 100 years after the close of the New Testament.

In Revelation, then, it seems that John was not referring to the first day of the week but to his being supernaturally taken (in some way) to the future Day of the Lord.

Rom. 14:5 says, "One person regards one day holier than other days, and another regards them all alike. Each must be fully convinced in his own mind." So while of course each day belongs to the Lord, setting one of 7 days apart is a matter of personal preference rather than commandment.

6 days ago 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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