Why do we suddenly see "the Lord's Day" in this verse, and never before this verse, in the Bible?
This term, 'the Lord's Day' appears in this the last book of the Bible. Why here, and never before? Shouldn't every day be the Lord's Day?
Clarify
•
Share
•
Report
•
Asked 7 days ago
•
Shirley H
Supporter
Community answers are sorted based on votes. The higher the vote, the further up an answer is.
Paula Fether
Supporter
"The Lord's Day" and "The Day of the Lord" are grammatically interchangeable in the original languages. So which way to render it in English is a matter of whether the translators consider "Lord" or "Day" the word to be emphasized in context. But the Bible only uses the term "first day of the week" for what we today call Sunday; it never equates "the Lord's Day/Day of the Lord" with that, and it wasn't used by the church until about 100 years after the close of the New Testament. In Revelation, then, it seems that John was not referring to the first day of the week but to his being supernaturally taken (in some way) to the future Day of the Lord. Rom. 14:5 says, "One person regards one day holier than other days, and another regards them all alike. Each must be fully convinced in his own mind." So while of course each day belongs to the Lord, setting one of 7 days apart is a matter of personal preference rather than commandment.
Add your Answer
All answers are REVIEWED and MODERATED.
Please ensure your answer MEETS all our guidelines.
A good answer provides new insight and perspective. Here are guidelines to help facilitate a meaningful learning experience for everyone.
- Adhere to the eBible Statement of Faith.
- Your answer should be complete and stand-alone.
- Include supporting arguments, and scripture references if possible. Seek to answer the "why".
- Adhere to a proper tone and spirit of love and understanding.
- For more info see The Complete Guide to eBible