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What does it mean when it says in 1 Corinthians 13 that tongues may cease?

Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away.

1 Corinthians 13:1 - 13

KJV - 1 Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal. 2 And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing.

Clarify Share Report Asked December 09 2019 Mini Anonymous

For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.

Mini Ben Ho

I believe what Paul meant when he wrote "tongues shall cease" is that he was referring to a time when there will not be any need for someone to speak a language for unbelievers to hear the gospel message.

The earlier passages were a gentle rebuke to the Corinthian church as tongues became a badge of being "special", being able to speak in an unknown tongue or language supernaturally.

Today, almost anyone who wants to read the Bible can read it in their own language. Most believers accept that when Paul referred to tongues, he was referring to a known foreign language.

1 Cor 14:22 refers to tongues given for the benefit of unbelievers, so that they can understand the gospel. It was not given to believers so that they can "feel" closer to God. It was a "sign" to them that believe not, when they hear the gospel spoken to their hearts in a language they can understand. Tongues, or the ability to proclaim the gospel in a foreign language supernaturally, shall cease, and has ceased since people generally can share the gospel message in the language of an unbeliever who wants to hear or read the message of salvation in Christ.

May 09 2020 Report

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