Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army

I would say that Jesus' atoning death and resurrection were SUFFICIENT to pay the penalty for the sins of any and every human who has ever lived from eternity past to eternity future, but that salvation is EFFECTUAL (that is, actually realized) only for those humans who rely completely on His atoning death and resurrection (rather than in their own imperfect works and righteousness) to attain it.

To me, this is expressed in John 3:16, which says that God so loved the world (that is, all humans) that He gave His only-begotten Son that whosoever believes in Him (a requirement that all COULD satisfy, but that not all -- through their own choosing -- WILL satisfy) should not perish, but have everlasting life.

August 10 2019 • 7 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

John Appelt

It is clear that the Bible shows that Jesus Christ died for everyone. These are some of the passages that support this: Isaiah 53:6, Mark 10:45, John 1:29, 3:14–16, 4:42, Romans 5:18–19, 2 Corinthians 5:14–21, 1 Timothy 2:4–6, Titus 2:11–14, and Hebrews 2:9. These passages say “all,” “the world,” “the whole world,” all maintaining the unlimited and universal extent of the atonement.

There are many who do not believe this but hold to “limited atonement” or “particular atonement,” which says that Christ died for those who would eventually be saved – only the “elect.” To support this, they redefine words such as “world,” “all,” and “everyone” to mean “the elect,” which is against the normal, common usage of these words. Two passages mention both “everyone” and the “elect,” 1 Timothy 4:10 and 1 John 2:2. If the definition of “everyone” means “elect,” then the passages must read the “elect” and the “elect” which is quite senseless. These inclusive terms mean every individual on earth.

When the Bible says Christ died for “His people,” Matthew 1:21, “His sheep, John 10:11, 15, “His church,” Acts 20:28, and “the elect,” Romans 8:32–35, it means Christ did die for them, but it does not prove that He died for them only. It just means there is a special relationship with those who believed. Romans 8:32 or Ephesians 5:2, suggest that Christ’s death was just for believers, but in these verses, Paul shares benefits believers enjoy from being saved. Revelation 5:9–10 seems to show a selective redemption, but instead it indicates the people who are saved come from every kind of background.

There is no proof that Jesus did not die for everyone. The Scriptures state He did. But not everyone is saved because of it. There is a needed requirement. While the way of atonement is provided, and God wants all to be saved, 1 Timothy 2:4, it requires faith on the part of each person, as indicated by Jesus Himself, John 6:47, 8:24. For Him to state these things means man is able to believe and must believe to have eternal life. 
The atonement is complete and satisfactory in the eyes of God. However, faith is required on the part of every person. It has been illustrated that at the first Passover, that even though the lamb was slain, the Israelites had to apply the blood of the lamb to the doorposts and lintel to be spared death, Exodus 12. So, Christ the Passover Lamb has been slain, 1 Corinthians 5:7, but each one must apply the truth and believe in Jesus.

When people do not believe, it does not mean Jesus’ sacrifice did not accomplish its purpose or was not effective. The problem is with the one who does not believe. He is condemned already, John 3:18, but he can change the outcome by believing on Jesus.

The Bible is clear about two things: Jesus died for all, and each person must believe in Jesus.

June 02 2024 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report