Anonymous (via GotQuestions)
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Carl Jones
This topic has been a portion of discussion for myself and a few others. Our topic began with the question below. Please help me to understand.
When did things change from having many wives and/or concubines, to having only one wife?
In the old testament we read about the many kings that had many wives and concubines. Speaking on Solomon as an example, and he was favored by God. However, his sin was not the many wives and concubines he had, but that these women led him astray to worship their pagan gods.
Maybe this should be a separate question on it's own. Hope to hear some direction.