Why does the apostle, Paul, in his defense in Acts 26, starting mid-verse 22 thru 23, refer to Old Testament prophesies saying, "I am saying nothing beyond what the prophets and Moses said would happen— that the Messiah would suffer and, as the first to rise from the dead, would bring this message of light to his own people and to the gentiles." My question: Why does Paul call Jesus the first to rise from the dead? I ask because Jesus raised others, like Lazarus, from the dead before his own death and resurrection.
Acts 26:22 - 23
ESV - 22 To this day I have had the help that comes from God, and so I stand here testifying both to small and great, saying nothing but what the prophets and Moses said would come to pass: 23 That the Christ must suffer and that, by being the first to rise from the dead, he would proclaim light both to our people and to the Gentiles.
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I don't know whether there is any distinction drawn with respect to the Greek words used to express the resurrection of Christ from other individuals whom the Bible records as having been raised from the dead. However, the main difference from a theological perspective (in my opinion) would be that everyone other than Christ who was dead but was brought back to life would die a "natural" death again at some point in the future. Jesus was unique in that, with His resurrection, he became alive eternally, and is no longer subject to dying again (just as will be the case with Christians when they are resurrected at the close of the age when Christ returns in glory). Paul (who saw the risen, ascended, and glorified Christ) made this explicitly clear in Romans 6:9-10. And that justifies the unique sense in which Paul calls Christ "the firstborn from the dead"
Jesus was the first to rise from the dead without any help or intervention from another human being. All others coming back from the dead did so through the intercession of Christ or a prophet.
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