How did Barnabas, being a Levite possess a land, while the Levites were instructed not to possess lands of their own (Numbers 18:20-21; Deuteronomy 10:8-9) as per the law?
My thought is that the difference is two-fold. 1. Where Barnabas lived, Cyprus, not Israel, and, 2. His individuality as different from his being a part of...




