ESV - 16 To the woman he said, "I will surely multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children. Your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you.
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Three translations - NLT, EXB, and NET says that the woman wants to control the man. Why aren't there more translations saying the same thing? My personal observation has been these three translations are correct. At least outwardly (behind the doors may be different), the other translations appear correct. God Bless,
I have looked at these verses several times and I do not see where the Bible calls this a curse upon the woman. The serpent was cursed. The ground was cursed, but unless it was implied, neither the man nor the woman were cursed. There are always consequences to sin. The consequences to the woman’s sin was that women would endure pain during childbirth, and that wives would desire their husband. The word "desire" is translated from the word "teshuqah" with a Strong’s definition of “a longing”. The same word is used elsewhere in the sense that a younger son would desire toward his elder brother and the elder brother would have the final say. Not just submit, but desire that the older would make the decisions that benefit both. We need to remember that God’s ideal for marriage is that “a man should leave his father and mother and the two should become one”. Both wanting the same things.
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