ESV - 16 To the woman he said, "I will surely multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children. Your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you.
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Three translations - NLT, EXB, and NET says that the woman wants to control the man. Why aren't there more translations saying the same thing? My personal observation has been these three translations are correct. At least outwardly (behind the doors may be different), the other translations appear correct. God Bless,
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