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Why is Lot declared "just" and "righteous" in 2 Peter 2:7-8?

The last information we have about Lot is that he comitted incest with his two daughters and lived in a cave.

Genesis 19:30 - 38

ESV - 30 Now Lot went up out of Zoar and lived in the hills with his two daughters, for he was afraid to live in Zoar. So he lived in a cave with his two daughters. 31 And the firstborn said to the younger, "Our father is old, and there is not a man on earth to come in to us after the manner of all the earth.

Clarify Share Report Asked January 22 2014 Mini Anonymous

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A6ac9128dd6f69162fac89c38e63e50f Gary Wainwright Follower of Jesus Christ, Husband, Father, Civil Engineer
He chose to live in the wicked city of Sodom (Genesis 13:12-13). He offered his two virgin daughters to an angry mob of homosexuals (Genesis 19:5-8). He later became drunk and impregnated his daughters, albeit unknowingly (Genesis 19:30-36). Anyone vaguely familiar with Old Testament history likely knows of Lot and his troubles. For this reason, some find it troubling that Lot is called “righteous” in the New Testament. Peter, in fact, used the term “righteous” three times to describe the patriarch: “God...delivered righteous Lot, who was oppressed by the filthy conduct of the wicked (for that righteous man, dwelling among them, tormented his righteous soul from day to day by seeing and hearing their lawless deeds” (2 Peter 2:7-8, emp. Added). Why did Peter repeatedly call Lot “righteous” when many see a different picture of Lot in Genesis? Was Lot really righteous? Does the Bible contradict itself?

First, one must keep in mind that though a Bible writer may have recorded specific sins and foolish acts of an individual does not mean that the person could not also have been righteous. Christ was the only perfect man ever to live (2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Peter 2:22). Though Noah, Abraham, Moses, etc. Were counted faithful (Hebrews 11:7-29), they occasionally disobeyed God’s will (cf. Numbers 20:1-12), and acted foolishly or cowardly (cf. Genesis 9:21; 12:12-20; 20:1-18). God never blessed their disobedience, only their faithfulness. Consider also the harlot Rahab. Whereas God did not condone her harlotry, she was “justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way” (James 2:25). “By faith the harlot Rahab did not perish with those who did not believe, when she had received the spies with peace” (Hebrews 11:32). Simply because God graciously saved Rahab from the destruction of Jericho, does not mean that God condoned her past sexual sins. Similarly, just because Peter called Lot righteous does not mean that Lot was perfect. Even the apostle Peter, who also served as an elder in the Lord’s church (1 Peter 5:1), was guilty at one time or another of having a lack of faith (Matthew 14:31), denying that he knew the Lord (Matthew 26:69-75), and hypocritically withdrawing himself from Gentiles (Galatians 2:11-14).

Second, Peter’s statements about Lot’s righteousness must be considered in their proper context. Similar to how Noah was an island of righteousness surrounded by a sea of iniquity (2 Peter 2:5), Lot was surrounded by extremely “wicked,” “filthy,” “lawless” citizens of Sodom (2 Peter 2:7-8). Although Lot was far from perfect, he was not a wicked, lawless unrighteous citizen of Sodom; he was righteous. Lot separated himself from the unlawfulness of the inhabitants of Sodom and was even tormented “day to day by seeing and hearing their lawless deeds” (2 Peter 2:8).

Though Lot’s offering of his daughters to the sodomites is inexcusable (as it seems were Abraham’s actions in Egypt and Gerar when he allowed his wife to be taken by kings in order to preserve his life; see Genesis 12:10-20; 20:1-18), Genesis 19 clearly indicates the distinction between the righteousness of Lot and the wickedness of the inhabitants of Sodom. The sodomites even hinted at such when they declared that Lot “keeps acting as a judge” (Genesis 19:9). This was the distinction Peter made—not that Lot was perfect, but that he remained uncontaminated by the intense iniquity prevalent throughout Sodom. Like Christians today who strive to walk in the light, though they are imperfect (1 John 1:5-10), Lot was a righteous man, who also made some memorable mistakes. 

Source: http://www.apologeticspress.org/apcontent.aspx?category=6&article=2400

January 31 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

Mini Arlie Frye
At the moment I don't have a bunch of references or Bible verse to 'prove' anything to you, but i just want to point out one flaw in your reasoning: Lots daughters got him drunk and then they basically raped him. Lot was inebriated and not in his right mind when this happened. But at the same time, incest is incest regardless but yet he was still deemed righteous. If you remember the story in the New Testament with Peter, Peter denied Christ THREE times and Jesus still forgave him. That is what God/Jesus is all about: Forgiveness. Hope this helps answer your question.

January 30 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

Mini Dave Morgan
I wonder if Peter was being slightly ironic, as in, "If God saved a man whose righteousness was as imperfect as Lot's was, we can be assured of our salvation too by faith!"

Its hard to reconcile Lot being tormented in his righteous soul when he had chosen to live in "Sin City," and gotten involved with the movers and shakers of that city (He is sitting at the city gate when the angels arrive--the city gate was where the city elders would be).

Lot certainly is righteous compared to the people of Sodom; he is the only man in the entire city who doesn't seek to abuse the angels, and the only man in the entire city who listens to their warning. In his context he is righteous. But he is also deeply compromised,

Thank God that righteousness is by faith and not by works!

October 29 2020 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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