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What is the difference between the words "LORD" and "GOD"?



    
    

Clarify Share Report Asked September 21 2013 Img 20130422 144621 Nyenda Shiganchey

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7
Stringio Vincent Mercado Supporter Skeptic turned believer, Catholic, father of 3
"God" is the deity. "God" is not a name.
"Lord" is a title, also not a name.

"Elohim" is the ancient Hebrew for "God", therefore not a name.
"The Almighty" is an attribute.
"El" is short for "Elohim", also not a name.
"El Shaddai" is Hebrew for "The Almighty", an attribute.
"Creator" is a role.
"Father" is a person.
"Adonai" is Hebrew for "Lord"

"YHWH" is God's Name as revealed to Moses. 
"I AM THAT I AM" is the English translation for "YHWH".
"I AM" is short for "I AM THAT I AM".
"Yahweh" is how "YHWH" is pronounced in Hebrew.
"Jehovah" is a wrong pronunciation of "YHWH". Ask the Jews.
"Yah" is short for "Yahweh".

"Allah" is Arabic for "God".

September 21 2013 1 response Vote Up Share Report


2
Mini Tom M
Mercado's answers are great. I would point out that Allah is not the same God (relative pronoun) that true Christians worship. Allah is a false god (no capital G).

I agree with the comment on Jehovah-but in the generation of the English words change: applying the same reasoning-we should call Jesus Christ Yeshua Ha Mashiac.  I have no heartburn over Jehovah even though I don't use iot.

September 22 2013 23 responses Vote Up Share Report


1
Mini Al Mari Private practice as a cardiovascular & thoracic surgeon
This question may appear miniscule. But actually this is a very important question.

In the Old Testament, the word "God" is translated from the original Hebrew non-capitalized word "elohim" in Genesis 1 (0430 Strong concordance). This is a "uniplural" word that means "multiplicity of powers", plurality of powers or majesty, the most supreme of all powers", otherwise Supreme God, the epitome of all. 

This uni-plural Hebrew word "elohim" contextually means "above all gods" (Ps. 95:3, 96:4, 97:9, 135:5; I Chron.16:25). The possessive words "us" and " our" were not in the original Hebrew but translated as such for " grammatical consistency". Moreover, "elohim" is a common or generic term, not a proper noun nor a specific term for a particular being. It can also refer to angels, demons(Satan, god of this world), and humans like judges or rulers.

To be specific, this Elohim was further identified as the one and only "YHVH" (Yahweh) translated as "Lord" in Genesis 2, i.e., "YHVH ELOHIM" or "Lord God". This is the Creator God referred to also in John 1 as LOGOS, who incarnated to man-Jesus, Yeshua or YHVH ELOHIM and was called "God" (John 1:1; 20:28; Titus 2:13), the "same yesterday, today and forever"(Heb.13:8). "YHVH ELOHIM" is the specific and proper name of the one true God of Israel. Much like "Smith" is generic or common name, but the proper name is the one and only "John Smith". This concept is "echad" or one God, "Shema Doctrine". 

Another name that is specific to the person is the Hebrew word "Adon" (singular) Adown, or "Adonim" (plural), Adonai. This is translated into English as "Lord" in the OT (Ex.34:23), the God of Israel. There was no attempt to duplicate this Hebrew in the NT.

In the New Testament, however, the English word "God" comes from the Greek word "Theos" and in general refers to the Father. Whereas, the English word "Lord" comes from the Greek word "kyrios", and refers to Jesus. Notice that Hebrew word "YHVH" and Greek word "Kyrios" are both translated into English word "Lord", referring to Jesus, who is also Logos or Word in John 1. 

A definitive separation and distinctiveness of these words can be proven in:

I Cor. 8:6 New Living Translation
"But we know that there is only one God, the Father, who created everything, and we live for him. And there is only one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom God made everything and through whom we have been given".

"There is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Messiah Yeshua" (1 Tim 2:5).

The Father-Son relationship was known before "in prophecy" but did not officially come to reality until the proclamation and testimony by the Father himself at the "river Jordan" narrative and timetable. Notice, "I will proclaim the LORD's decree: He said to me, "You are my son; today I have become your father"(Ps.2:7). Not yesterday or tomorrow but "today", meaning after the "river Jordan" water baptism. GOD was not introduced as the "Father" and Jesus as the "Son" until after Jesus came out of the water and was "confirmed" by the Father himself, as in, "this is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased" (Matt.3:17;Mk.1:11). When there is a "son", then there is a "Father". Consider also:

"And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form"(Jn.5:37).

"We accept human testimony, but God's (Father's) testimony is greater because it is the testimony of God, which he has given about his Son"(I John 5:9)

Following the principle of "progressive revelation", in the NT, Peter and the apostles through the Holy Spirit given to them at Pentecost, understood subsequently that the "God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob" or "God of our fathers" referred to was actually God the Father (Acts 3:13; 5:30), although speaking through YHVH ELOHIM.
For additional information, please access: 
http://www.hebrew-streams.org/works/monotheism/context-elohim.html

February 21 2015 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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