What is the difference between tithes and offerings?


Clarify Share Report Asked July 01 2013 Mini Anonymous (via GotQuestions)

For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.

20140220 120200 Danita Davis

You cannot accept part of the law without accepting all of the law. Tithing is of the old testament. The tithe was instituted for the levitical priesthood because they were not landowners and so that had no income. So this is one of the reasons the tithe was instituted. There are no more Levitical priests so there is no one to pay tithes to. Jesus is the fulfillment of the law. To say that we are still obligated to "pay" (meaning that is something that we owe) is to say that Jesus' work on the cross of setting us free from the law of sin and death is null and void. This is not true. We are to Give, not tithe. Tithing is a debt, and we owe no man nothing but to love them. I agree with Michael Houdman. It is time to share the truth of God's word. If you want to tithe, it is not wrong to tithe, but it certainly is not an obligation. This is where the misinterpretation comes in - that is believing that it is a debt that we must pay. Paul said: Give, and it shall be given to you good measure, pressed down, shaken together and running over will men give unto your bosom." (Luke 6:38) No where will you find in the New Testament where Jesus told us to tithe. He talked about tithing because he was Jewish and the Jewish people lived under the law (he had not yet died on the cross) Luke 11:42. The weighter matters to Jesus was Love and mercy. This is what he truly cared about.

July 02 2014 Report

Mini Jon Hainline

The first tithe was made to Melchizedek by Abraham in Genesis. Abraham lived not under the law for the law was not yet given. Additionally Jesus is of course from the priestly line of Melchizedek. Also, the first tithe took place under a grace covenant, which is what we are under today as believers in the risen Christ. Yes the old covenant given to Moses included the tithe as part of it, but the tithe was in place prior to the law. "Sow sparingly reap sparingly" (2 Cor 9), and "give and it will be given to you . . . shall men give in to your bosom." (Luke 6). Brothers and sisters, 10% of all you have you are obligated to give to the Lord. After that the rest is yours. I would encourage you to give generously.

November 08 2014 Report

Data Theo Robinson

I also believe tithing was for the Nation of Israel. Also in Malachi 3 the open the "Windows of Heaven and pour you out a blessing you won't have room for" was fulfilled in Jesus Christ. But it's on your faith that you tithe and or give a freewill offering.

March 12 2015 Report

Mini Jon Davis

I believe tithing was the precursor to the income tax, for providing food to the helplessly hungry in the community. It also provided food for the priests and other clergymen, because ancient Israel was a theocracy. Literally, "tithe" and "income tax" are one and the same thing, in their Old Testament context.

We are imposed an income tax today, here in the USA it's somewhere around 30%, and none of it goes towards clergymen because the USA is not a theocracy. Meanwhile, because of what Jesus did for us, mankind is restored to God and needs no priest--there is now only one mediator between God and man, and that is the man Jesus Christ--but there are local churches and organizations that preach the gospel and that feed the hungry beyond what our government is able or willing to do. This is where we must willingly "pitch in". But this is not a tithe. It isn't even an offering. It is being a saved, surrendered human being, looking out for his neighbor.

December 28 2015 Report

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