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Tim Maas
I would say that it does not. Praying in the Spirit (as far as I am aware) refers to praying with the leading of, and according to the will of, the Holy Spirit. In my opinion, the verse cited in the question (which appears in John's account of the raising of Lazarus from the dead in John 11) does not refer to Jesus praying (although He did pray aloud later in the same chapter (John 11:41-42)), but instead being deeply moved or troubled (as multiple translations of the verse express it). His emotion was so great that it caused Him to weep (John 11:35). I would say that this arose from three factors -- Jesus' personal love for Lazarus (John 11:5); the effect of the many people present who were weeping and mourning for Lazarus, and also for Lazarus' bereaved sisters (Mary and Martha); and perhaps Jesus' sorrow as the eternal Son of God (even mixed with a possible element of anger) that sin had brought such grief to humankind, which had not been God's original plan for His creation.
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