Paul tells us that "One died for all, therefore all died." How did we die "in Christ" almost 2,000 year ago?

Other supportive passages:  Rom 6:6/7:4

2 Corinthians 5:14

NKJV - 14 For the love of Christ compels us, because we judge thus: that if One died for all, then all died.

Clarify (2) Share Report Asked March 19 2018 Mini Robert Broyles

For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.

Mini Flame Lighter

John 5:28-29
28 “Do not be amazed at this, for a time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice 29 and come out—those who have done what is good will rise to live, and those who have done what is evil will rise to be condemned.
All died in Him when He died. Those who truly believe rise from death to eternal life. Those who do not believe rise from death to eternal damnation.
Rising from death can mean from the 'sleep' after one's physical body stops working or rising from 'sleep' while still in the physical-seeing things as they really are without scales over the eyes. All will see this way in the end.

March 20 2018 Report

Mini study and question

As Apostle Peter stated, Paul's writings are difficult to understand. It may helpful to compare his letters with what Jesus said.

March 21 2018 Report

Mini Robert Broyles

I would have to disagree with the statement "Paul's writings are difficult to understand." What Peter said was "some things ... are hard to understand". 2 Peter 3:16 NIV

March 25 2018 Report

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