If Jesus is speaking in this verse, why doe He keep referring to "my God"?
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When considering the triune nature of God, there are aspects about the concept that seem in some respects to be contradictory, and the full comprehension of which (in my opinion) is not possible in this life, but that the Bible clearly indicates are nevertheless equally true and valid. Each Person of the Trinity is equally and fully God, and yet there are not three Gods, but one God. Also, although each Person is equally and fully God, there is subordination within the Trinity, with the Son being subordinate to the Father, and the Holy Spirit being subordinate to both the Father and the Son. With specific reference to the relationship between God the Father and God the Son, Jesus on multiple occasions referred to God the Father not just as His Father, but also as His God. This was true not just during His earthly life (Matthew 27:46 / Mark 15:34), but also after His resurrection (John 20:17), as well as in His glorified state in heaven (as shown by the verse cited in the question). As a man and as man's representative following His incarnation (as Jesus emphasized by referring to Himself as the Son of Man), Jesus was dependent on God the Father, and therefore spent much time in prayer to Him, and looked to Him for strength, guidance, and wisdom. Therefore, God the Father was (and continues to be, as Jesus indicated in Revelation 3:12) in that respect the God of Jesus. However, this does not imply inferiority, but a difference in roles.
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