It's missing in some of the more traditional versions like the KJV and the NIV, but in other versions, like the ESV and amplified, they are in italics or a footnote. Is it because it conflicts with the holy trinity?
AMP - 37 And Philip said, If you believe with all your heart [if you have a conviction, full of joyful trust, that Jesus is the Messiah and accept Him as the Author of your salvation in the kingdom of God, giving Him your obedience, then] you may. And he replied, I do believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
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Actually, Acts 8:37 is in my KJV " and Phillip answered said, If thou believest with all your heart you mayest. I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.. In the NKJV v37 Than Phillip said, If you believe that Jesus Christ is the son of God. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.. I do not see where the problem is because in v.35 Then Phillip opened his mouth and began at the same scription and preached unto him Jesus. So, Ve 35 leads into v38 and so it all makes sense to me.
Early manuscripts such as P45 (3rd century), P74 (7th century), Sinaiticus (4th century), Vaticanus (4th century), Alexandrinus (5th century), C (5th century), L (8th century), and Ψ (9th century) omit the verse. The earliest extant manuscript to include the verse is E from the 6th century. Thus E is predated by 5 manuscripts that omit the verse. Worthy of note is that all 5 of these are Egyptian manuscripts. However, early Latin fathers such as Irenaeus and Cyprian knew of the verse: Irenaeus (180 AD): [Philip declared] that this was Jesus, and that the Scripture was fulfilled in Him; as did also the believing eunuch himself: and, immediately requesting to be baptized, he said, "I believe Jesus Christ to be the Son of God." Cyprian (250 AD): In the Acts of the Apostles: "Lo, here is water; what is there which hinders me from being baptized? Then said Philip, If you believe with all your heart, you may." These Church father quotations predate all of the extant manuscripts that omit the verse. In terms of the number of manuscripts, 8:37 is not found in the majority of even the later manuscripts. However, the official Greek text of the Greek Orthodox Church, the 1904 Patricarchal Text, has included the verse. So basically, some manuscripts have it, some manuscripts don't.
Hundreds of years ago the Catholics and Protestants did battle with each other for hundreds of years. The Catholics created their own altered Greek manuscripts to reduce the divinity of Jesus so more people would pay attention to the Pope. If your Bible says in 1 Timothy 3:16 that God was manifest in the flesh, then you have a good Bible. John 9:35 should have Jesus asking, "Do you believe in the Son of God?" Not, "Do you believe in the Son of man? If your Bible has many Godly verses such as Acts 8:37, moved to the bottom of the page with the note that this verse is not in some Greek or Aramic manuscripts then your Bible is not good. Modern Bibles using Alexandrian texts, are missing words, phrases, even (250) verses in hundreds of places. Trust the King James Bible OK? KJV
The verse in question, Acts 8:37, appears in brackets in my copy of the NASB. This verse appears in every copy of the KJV that I possess. My research has shown that the verse in missing from some of the early manuscripts and because of this certain publishers have chosen to differentiate it. The verse and passage that it is taken from speak on Christian conversion and show no contradiction with the doctrine of God in Three Persons. Nonchristians however will attempt to use this and similar verses to show that Jesus is not part of the Godhead despite Scripture teaching otherwise.
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