What does God mean when he says a child from David's own body will build him a house and will be set over his house and his kingdom forever?
And now I’m telling you this: God himself will build you a house! When your life is complete and you’re buried with your ancestors, then I’ll raise up your child to succeed you, a child from your own body, and I’ll firmly establish his rule. He will build a house to honor me, and I will guarantee his kingdom’s rule forever. I’ll be a father to him, and he’ll be a son to me. I will never remove my gracious love from him as I did from the one who preceded you. I will set him over my house and my kingdom forever; his throne will always be there, rock solid (1 Chronicles 17:10 MSG)
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Asked April 18 2014
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TJ Horsman
For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.
Michael Tinsley
The short answer is He's foretelling Jesus's coming as His Son, and the establishment of His kingdom forever.
2 Samuel: 7:17 is where God tells Nathan the prophet that Jesus is going to be a descendant of David and the words in the question, ' a child from David's own body will build him a house....' are in 2 Samuel: 7: 12-13.
Of course, when David is told this revelation by Nathan he is very curious, and asks the Lord why he and his family are worthy of this covenant, in 2 Samuel 7:18-29.
I'm sure many people will ask, what does 2 Samuel 7:14 mean exactly, when Nathan is told, 'When he (Jesus) does wrong, I will punish him with a rod yielded by men.....'. I'm interested to see what people think of that verse.
TJ Horsman
Can you shed light on the wording 'a child from his own body'? Because I would have assumed this referred to the children David fathered himself using his own body. But of course with hindsight this prophecy did not apply to any of David's direct children. Perhaps the english translation is misleading, but the fact that Solomon seems to have thought the prophesy referred to him adds to the uncertainty.
Regarding the verse about the rod, I wondered the same, as it's often said that Jesus was without sin. But if 'punish' does refer to Jesus presumably this would be Jesus as a boy being disciplined by his human parents for childish transgressions - a way of prophesying that although he will be the eternal Lord he will also live a life subject to the power of men (true of his birth and upbringing as a human child and his death at the hands of men). Regarding his sinlessness, perhaps we should not imagine that Jesus was a baby who never cried, or a toddler who never had a tantrum, or a teenager who never questioned his parents' authority. That he was not absolutely perfect is clear when he says 'why do you call me good? Only God is truly good' in Mark 10:18. My assumption though is that after his baptism and trial in the desert he did not sin during his subsequent ministry on earth. I realise this remains an area of uncertainty and would also be interested in the views of anyone who can shed further light on our reading of this verse using other specific scriptures.
Michael Tinsley
TJ,
I thought the passage about the rod meant being punished by men referred to His flogging and crucifixion, having been _judged by men, rather than His childhood.
I hadn't thought of that, but maybe it is an insight into His upbringing since no child I've ever known wasn't mischievous, and most teens are rebellious.
As to 'a child from his own body', I thought it meant because Jesus is a descendant of David and didn't take it as if Jesus was an actual child of his. Maybe as you said, it is the English translation, which is the only language I understand so you'd have to ask someone fluent in Aramaic (I'm assuming that's what David and the Israelites spoke) or in either Latin or Greek.
Barbara Post
He was for telling of Jesus Christ coming.
Danny Hickman
It is pure heresy to say that Jesus wasn't perfect; a toddler having a tantrum isn't sinning; there’s no law that says of a baby, 'Thou shalt not cry, or throw a tantrum.' Jesus never disobeyed the Father. That tells you right there that he never disobeyed his parents. If there's a scripture that says he did, list it. (One sin, one act of disobedience, and his mission would be for naught).
Here it is: Jesus was not born in iniquity; Jesus was not born an unbeliever. Jesus was never "born again" because he was never lost. Jesus was never taught the scriptures, he is the scriptures.
The Jews there (at the festival) were amazed and asked, "How did this man get such learning, without having been taught?" Jesus answered, "My teaching is not my own. It comes from him who sent me" (John 7:15,16).
Jesus is the Word of God (John 1:1,2). God's word is perfect. "Sanctify them in the truth; your word is truth" (John 17:17).
"You search the scriptures diligently because you think that in them you have eternal life. These are the very scriptures that testify about me, yet you refuse to come to me (the living Word of God) to have life" (John 5:39).
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, YET WITHOUT SIN (Hebrews 4:15).
Either Jesus was without sin, or the writer of Hebrews 4 is wrong. It can't be both ways.
(YES! Saying Jesus was a sinner annoys me, greatly)!!