Why does Paul say "There is no partiality with God" when he says right before that, "But glory, honor, and peace to everyone who works what is good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek."?

If paul says God has no partiality then why does he say "to the Jew first"? To me saying to the Jew first means that they are in favor.  I know that in the Gospel it is often said to preach to the Jew first. I feel these statments contradict each other.

Clarify • Share • Report • Asked March 18 2014 • Paul Mannon