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John 3:22 reads, “After these things Jesus and His disciples came into the land of Judea, and there He remained with them and baptized.” The impression you have that Jesus didn’t baptize could be due to a verse in the very next chapter (4:2): “(though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples).” Do these verses contradict each other? No. John 3:22 means that Jesus was superintending, or behind, the disciples and the baptizing, but He was not doing the actual physical baptizing as we know from John 4:2. Quoted from Norman A. Olson in care of the Baptist Bulletin. I encourage you to read the rest of his article at http://baptistbulletin.org/?p=1792
I think it depends on how you perceive what baptism is. For example; there is baptism by immersion in water, and there is baptism of the Holy Spirit and Fire. According to Mathew 3:11, John baptized with water, Jesus was to baptize with the Holy Spirit and fire. In light of the above, if you are talking of baptism by immersion in water, there is no scriptural evidence that Jesus did actively baptize any person. This could have been that He (Jesus) was not to actively baptize by immersion in water as is clearly indicated by John the Baptist. Jesus only kept Himself to the baptism of the Holy Spirit and fire because that was what had been tasked to Him. Additionally, baptism of the Holy Spirit and fire is supreme to baptism by immersion in water. It therefore depicted the supremacy of Jesus the CHRIST over John the Baptist. Even John the Baptist said it; "He who is coming after me is greater than i......" As such, Jesus did baptize, it only depends on what form of baptism you are referring to. Is it by immersion in water, or by the Holy Spirit and Fire? By immersion in water, He did not actively baptize, with the Holy Spirit and Fire, yes He did and He still does to date.
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