JD Abshire

2 Peter 1:19" We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:"!

2Pe 1:20	 "Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation."

2Pe 1:21	 "For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost."


Acts 1:1 "The former treatise have I made, O Theophilus, of all that Jesus began both to do and teach," 

Acts 1:2 "Until the day in which he was taken up, after that he through the Holy Ghost had given commandments unto the apostles whom he had chosen: 

Acts 1:3 "To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God:"

December 16 2013 • 1 response • Vote Up • Share • Report

Emo Tenorio Shomer

Great question in my humble opinion the complete Bible is both infallible and inerrant making it the only one in recorded world history, what a claim.

Consider just the fact that we have sixty six books written by forty different writers in forty different locations and span of time, when travel was by foot or animal these books are somehow interwoven and interdependent!

This book and it's message to us from outside of time has proven it's self to be correct 100% of the time so far, by various unbelieving disciplines of science.

Pick any verse you like, this book will prove it's correct, for instance in Luke 3:1 he refers to Lysanias being the tetrarch of Ablilene in A.D. 27 scholars for years pointed out he was wrong.

As everyone knew that Lysanias was not a tetrarch but a ruler in Chalcis half a century earlier! 

That's when archaeology stepped in, an inscription was later found from the time of Tiberius from A.D. 14 - 37 which names Lysanias as tetrarch in Abila near Damascus.

It turned out there had been two government officials named Lysanias, Luke was proven to have been been correct all along.

What we hold in our hands today is so precious that the Creator of all preserved and protected His message to us, that we might correctly know and trust HIM.

In the Lord's freedom and infallible TRUTH......warrior on

December 16 2013 • 3 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Jack Gutknecht ABC/DTS graduate, guitar music ministry Baptist church

The word inerrancy is formed from the word inerrant, from the Latin inerrāntem, (being in- + errāntem the present participle of errāre to err or wander). It is defined by the Oxford English Dictionary as "That does not err; free from error; unerring." Another word often used to characterize the Bible is "infallible". From dictionary definitions, Frame (2002) insists that this is a stronger term than "inerrant". "'Inerrant' means there are no errors; 'infallible' means there can be no errors".Yet he agrees that "modern theologians insist on redefining that word also, so that it actually says less than 'inerrancy.'" Lindsell (1978) states that, "The very nature of inspiration renders the Bible infallible, which means that it cannot deceive us. It is inerrant in that it is not false, mistaken, or defective".
Note what Christ taught about the inspiration of the Old Testament:
(1) Its entirety; the whole of the Bible is inspired (Matthew 4:4; 5:17-18). In Matthew 4:4, Jesus responded to Satan’s temptation by affirming verbal plenary inspiration when He said, man is to live by every word (plenary) that proceeds out of the mouth of God (inspiration). In Matthew 5:17-18, Christ promised that the entire Old Testament, the Law and the Prophets, would be fulfilled, not abolished. In fact, He declared that not even the smallest Hebrew letter, the yodh, which looks like an apostrophe (‘), or stroke of a letter, a small distinguishing extension or protrusion of several Hebrews letters (cf. The extension on the letter R with it absence on the letter P), would pass away until all is fulfilled. Christ’s point is that it is all inspired and true and will be fulfilled.
Its inerrancy; men are often in error, but the Bible is not; it is truth (Matthew 22:29; John 17:17).
Its infallibility; the Bible cannot be broken, it always stands the test (John 10:35).

Deductive justifications
The first deductive justification is that the Bible claims to be inspired by God (for instance "All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting, and training in righteousness"[2 Tim 3:16]) and because God is perfect, the Bible must also be perfect and, hence, free from error. For instance, the statement of faith of the Evangelical Theological Society says, "The Bible alone, and the Bible in its entirety, is the Word of God written and is therefore inerrant in the autographs".
Supportive of this is the idea that God cannot lie. W J Mcrea writes:
The Bible then makes two basic claims: it asserts unequivocally that God cannot lie and that the Bible is the Word of God. It is primarily from a combination of these facts that the argument for inerrancy comes. 
And Grenz has: 
A second reason offered is that Jesus and the apostles used the Old Testament in a way that assumes it is inerrant. For instance, in Galatians 3:16, Paul bases his argument on the fact that the word "seed" in the Genesis reference to "Abraham and his seed" is singular rather than plural. This (as claimed) sets a precedent for inerrant interpretation down to the individual letters of the words. 
Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He does not say, "And to seeds", as (referring) to many, but (rather) to one, "And to your seed", that is, Christ.[Gal 3:16] 
Similarly, Jesus said that every minute detail of the Old Testament Law must be fulfilled,[Mt 5:18] indicating (it is claimed) that every detail must be correct. 
For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
— [Mt. 5:18 (KJV)]
Although in these verses, Jesus and the apostles are only referring to the Old Testament, the argument is considered by some to extend to the New Testament writings, because 2 Peter 3:16 accords the status of scripture to New Testament writings also: "He (Paul) writes the same way in all his letters...which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other scriptures".[2 Pet. 3:16]

January 01 2019 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Vincent Mercado Supporter Skeptic turned believer, Catholic, father of 3

The bible is inerrant, that is, a book (a collection of books) that contains no error. All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness. (2 Timothy 3:16)

The bible is not infallible. Infallibility is a divine protection from actively doing error. Objects (e.g. books) do not "do" error. It could be said that the books of the bible were infallibly chosen, that is, the the people who declared the list of books were protected from "doing" error by the Holy Spirit (during the time they were picking the books, not their entire life). (Matthew 16:18)

God allowed books to be inerrant and people to be infallible because He is in control of these. To the inerrant bible, with books infallibly chosen by men, we can place our trust and know God speaks.

December 16 2013 • 12 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report