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How is Jesus from David's bloodline if he was born of a virgin?

Does the virgin birth mean he wasn't of David's bloodline as the Prophecy required?

This is something Jews bring up a lot, basically the prophecy in Isaiah requires Jesus be of David's bloodline yet Jesus' virgin birth seemingly means he isn't technically of the bloodline.

Clarify Share Report Asked November 29 2013 Mini Anonymous

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8
Q jcryle001 JD Abshire
I do not know that scripture uses the term blood line. Matthew 1 identifies Joseph, the husband of Mary also of David's lineage. However, Solomon's line, the line of Joseph was cursed. 
(See Jeremiah 22:24-30)

Mary was descendent of Nathan, David's other son whom he named after the prophet.

This answers the prophecy of Isaiah 9:6 "For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given:"

I.E. The child Jesus was born through Mary
 The son was given, (adopted) by Joseph

Side note: Joseph was called the son of Heli in Luke 3:23. Heli was actually Mary's father. I understand it was customary to call extended family son, etc. 

In Genesis 9:24 "And Noah awoke from his wine, and new what his younger son had done to him:" v.25 "And he said, Cursed be Canaan". If you look back in in verse 22, we see that Canaan was the son of Ham. Canaan was actually Noah's grandson.

The tile of "only begotten" is found 4 times in John's Gospel and once in his Epistle which speaks of Christ's uniqueness. The Lord Jesus is one of a kind.

The only other person referred to in this manner is Isaac in Hebrews 11:17. Although not divine he was also a "miracle baby".

November 29 2013 2 responses Vote Up Share Report


7
Stringio Phillip Ramirez Actor-Musician-Bible Student
Great question... and one that has an incredibly cool answer!

First, check out Matt. 1:5,6. You'll note that it mentions Obed becoming the father of Jesse who, in turn, becomes the father of David. These names are important... you'll find out below.

Next, check out Luke 3:31,32. You'll see the same names here. Now, here's where it gets interesting...

Read both genealogies. Write them out, it might help. You'll notice that they are different, with the exception of the scriptures pointed out above. Why are they different, and what do the two Bible writers have to do with it? Put on your thinking caps, kids...

Matthew was the one interested in the Law. Hence, his genealogy covers the LEGAL aspect of Jesus' lineage... the male side. Luke, the good physician, covers the BLOOD aspect of the lineage... the female side.

Why is this important? Because these two genealogies clearly and legally establish that Jesus not only has the LEGAL right to be on the throne of God's kingdom, but he also the the BLOOD right to be there. Thus, Jesus is firmly established to be the true king of the kingdom that he taught us to pray for and to be established on earth (Matt. 6:9, 10).

November 30 2013 3 responses Vote Up Share Report


2
Data Bruce Lyon Elder: Restoration Fellowship Assembly
Mary was of the bloodline of David and as such Jesus is the great, great, great grandson of King David, the genetic connection is through her. I doesn't matter if she was a virgin when she became pregnant by a special biologically developed fetus that came into being by and through the power of the spirit of the living God - YHVH. Jesus was the second one specially created of God and thus called the son of God. Adam was the first. Paul refers to him as the second man the last Adam. The first Adam failed in his responsibility the last Adam did not, therefore there was no need for another Adam.

November 30 2013 3 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Mini Alan suthard
The genealogy in Luke is that of Jesus through His earthly father, descended from David's son, Nathan. The one in Matthew follows the kingly line through Solomon to Jesus through His only real earthly parent, His mother, Mary! Instead of Joseph, "the husband" of Mary, it should read: Joseph, "the father" of Mary. This is evidently a translation error. The original Matthew is known to have been written in Aramaic, so was translated into Greek and then to English. There are New Testaments available that are translated into English from Aramaic and do show this correctly.

November 30 2013 1 response Vote Up Share Report


1
Stringio donna reyes
When Joseph and Mary got married that's the time David's bloodline came in. Joseph came from David's bloodline. That is why the angel of the Lord visited Joseph in his dream to make sure that Joseph will marry Mary to fulfill the prophecy that the Messiah will come from a virgin birth. Hope I answered your question correctly. God bless!

November 29 2013 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Data Pastor Shafer
[(as was supposed)] As reckoned by law the son of Joseph, but in reality He was the Son of God and Mary (Lk. 1:35; Mt. 1:18-25). Joseph was begotten by Jacob, and was his natural son (Mt. 1:16). He was the legal son or son-in-law of Heli, having married Mary the daughter of Heli. It does not say Joseph was begotten by Heli, as it does in the case of Jacob (Mt. 1:16). 
 
[son of Joseph] As women are never reckoned in genealogies, Joseph, the legal son of Heli naturally took the place of Mary in this genealogy of the natural line of Jesus Christ back to Adam. As is the rule of genealogies, the natural line always begins with the man himself and goes backward as far as can be. But in a royal line, as in Mt. 1, it begins at the source of the dynasty and ends with himself. The names of persons from Joseph back to Zorobabel (Lk. 3:23-27) are not in the Old Testament because they lived between its close and the birth of Christ.

November 30 2013 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Mini HENRY J HIRSIMAKI
There is one area that is overlooked, and that is the one of 'oneness'.
Genesis 2:24...and they shall become one flesh. 
Math.1:18...Mary was espoused to Joseph.
Whether the word used is espoused, betrothed, or engaged they all carry the meaning of a vow, promise, truthful so in context, Mary and Joseph were considered 'one flesh'. 
Eph.5:23 For the husband is the head of the wife. 
Therefore Joseph would be considered the head of that union and I believe this is the reason he is credited in the genealogy in 
Mathew 1:16...Joseph the husband of Mary,of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
Therefore in Math.1:1 holds true, 'The book of the generations of Jesus Christ, son of David, the son of Abraham.'

December 02 2013 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Andy  3 photo Andy Mangus I am a Christian since October 1979 & devoted truth seeker.
My simple but short answer is this: Read Matthew 1:1-17. This is the direct details of Jesus 'bloodline' back to David. And our Savior, as we read in His Holy Bible, was God's "only begotten Son, born of a virgin" and "to be our Holy example, living among us, and to die on that cross, taking on all the sins of the World, that anyone whom calls upon the name of the Lord, in His Holy Blessed name, shall receive salvation unto the Lord."

"Praise God that we have a Savior, and His name is Jesus Christ".
~~Andy~~

August 31 2016 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Imag0495 Lynn Willis Obedient Daughter of the High King of the Universe
Whenever in doubt... turn to scripture!

Jesus' geneology is clearly outlined in Matthew 1 here:

http://ebible.com/kjv/section/1537?focus_verse=40001002#5429

Read and be delivered from your doubts about our one true Messiah Lord and Saviour Jesus! Halleluyah!

I wanted to add too that it is a miraculous confirmation that one of the most revered Jewish leaders, Rabbi Yitzchak Kaduri, a year before he died, had a dream in which the messiah's name was revealed to him. He wrote it down on a paper and gave it to his Rabbi brother ONLY to be revealed after his death. It was Yehosua, which is Jesus. 

THIS we already know! 

God WANTS us to know Him... trust in the Lord in EVERYTHING for He is always wanting only the best for us in truth! Amen.

June 27 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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