If Adam was not deceived, then why did he allow Eve to deceive him?

Apostle's statement in 1 Timothy 2:14 says that Adam was not deceived, yet Genesis 3:6 reveals that Adam was right there with Eve when was deceived by Satan. I submit unto you that Adam was deceived, unfortunately. 

1 Timothy 2:14 - 3:7

KJV - 14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. 15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.

Clarify Share Report Asked November 28 2013 Stringio Doron Bond

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Q jcryle001 JD Abshire
Relying on the inerrancy and accuracy of God's Word, Adam was not deceived by Satan or Eve. It does not say he wasn't tempted and succumbed to the temptation. 

James 1:14 states "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed."
1:15 "Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death."

November 29 2013 2 responses Vote Up Share Report

Stringio Mi Shad Ow Layman
Adam did not have the conversation with Satan, so he was not directly deceived. Scripture records that Eve was. Paul is only reinforcing that man is the head.

December 18 2013 1 response Vote Up Share Report

Mini Donald Williams
My understanding is that Adam made a conscious decision to disobey God in order to stay with Eve just as (in Exodus 21:1-6) the servant who could be free after 7 years chose to stay with master and wife because the law required servants who were married as a servant, in order to be free, had to leave his wife and any children with their master.
Jesus also took on servant hood in order for us to be redeemed. 
(From a video of a Les Feldick sermon).

May 23 2018 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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