"Jesus wept" in John 11:35, why did He weep?

Does the verse simply mean that the wake was still continuing by custom so Jesus joined with them for some kind of "weeping and wailing" tradition- before the amazing resurrection of the dead man who was rotting?

Were the tears because the Father had made him wait do nothing for those 4 days?

Were they tears for His own grief to come? 

John 11:35

ESV - ³⁵ Jesus wept.

Clarify • Share • Report • Asked September 28 2013 • Casper Mcconnell