Why did the angel tell Joseph to name his son Jesus if Isaiah said He would be called Immanuel?


Clarify Share Report Asked September 25 2013 Mini Ron Huston

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There are many names given to Jesus using the phrase "He shall be called," both in the Old and New Testaments. This was a common way of saying that people would refer to Him in these various ways. Isaiah prophesied of the Messiah, "His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace" (Isaiah 9:6). None of these titles was Jesus' actual name, but these were descriptions people would use to refer to Him forever. Luke tells us Jesus "shall be called the Son of the Highest" (Luke 1:32) and "son of God" (1:35) and "the prophet of the Highest" (1:76), but none of these was His name.

In two different places, the prophet Jeremiah says in referring to the coming Messiah, "And this is His name by which He shall be called, JEHOVAH, OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS" (Jeremiah 23:5-6; 33:15-16). Now we know that God, the Father, is named Jehovah. Jesus was never actually called Jehovah as though it was His name, but His role was that of bringing the righteousness of Jehovah to those who would believe in Him, exchanging that righteousness for our sin (2 Corinthians 5:21). Therefore, this is one of the many titles or "names" which belong to Him.

In the same way, to say that Jesus would be called "Immanuel" means Jesus is God and that He dwelt among us in His incarnation and that He is always with us. Jesus was God in the flesh. Jesus was God making His dwelling among us (John 1:1,14). No, Jesus' name was not Immanuel, but Jesus was the meaning of Immanuel, "God with us." Immanuel is one of the many titles for Jesus, a description of who He is.

September 26 2013 2 responses Vote Up Share Report

1340324413 Chris Eleam Chris Eleam
Regarding Jesus’ birth, Matthew wrote: “All this actually came about for that to be fulfilled which was spoken by Jehovah through his prophet [at Isaiah 7:14], saying: ‘Look! The virgin will become pregnant and will give birth to a son, and they will call his name Immanuel,’ which means, when translated, ‘With Us Is God.’” (Matthew 1:22, 23) Jesus was not given the personal name Immanuel, but his role as a human fulfilled its meaning. Jesus’ presence on the earth as the Messianic Seed and Heir to David’s throne proved to Jehovah’s worshipers that God was with them, on their side, backing them up in their undertakings.—Genesis 28:15; Exodus 3:11, 12; Joshua 1:5, 9; Psalm 46:5-7; Jeremiah

September 25 2013 4 responses Vote Up Share Report

Mini James Nix
The messiahs name shouldn't  even be Jesus. Jesus is a Greek name given for the messiah. Our savior was not from Grease. Why they would feel they should translate His name to something different is ludicrous in my opinion. Jesus doesn't even have a proper meaning. 
Even the letter J wasnt added to the alphabet until about 600 years ago, I think 600. 
Any ways His name given by the Father is Yeshua, and the Hebrew definition for it means Salvation.

Matthew 1:21
21 And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.
You shall name Him Yeshua(salvation) for He will save His people....

Immanuel is considered a title more than a name. 
Just like we can call Him King of Kings and Lord Of Lords. That is a title not His name...

September 26 2013 0 responses Remove Vote Share Report

Mini Daniel Coleman
I was doing a search for, "Did the angel really tell Joseph you are to name the child Jesus?", when I came across this posting. 

My thoughts are: if his name was actually "Yeshua", why do the majority of people in the world commonly know Him by the name of Jesus? Why doesn't the angel tell him he is to give Him the name Yeshua or Joshua? Why make the point that Jesus is the greek form of the name Joshua? Why is the New Testament written in the Greek? 

It would seem to me that He was given the name Jesus specifically for breaking down the wall of hostility (Ephesians 2:14-16) between Jew and Gentile. That specifically, God the Father was making His people envious (Romans 10:19 & 11:11) by using the Greek form of the name they were accustomed to as representative of "the Lord saves" - to let them know that He had opened up the door to the Gentiles. Why do people everywhere sing songs about Jesus and not Joshua or Yeshua?

I believe we have come to know him by the name the Father intended - Jesus.

July 16 2018 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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