What does the Word mean when it says that God is not a respecter of men?

I have heard a lot of people say this. But I'm not really sure what the word respecter even means? I've also found it in the word. I have tried to look at my notes for a definition but there was none. I really would like to know because it's something to describe who God is.I don't want walk around saying something I truly don't understand. I'm sorry for no scripture reference. I cannot find it fast enough.

Clarify (4) Share Report Asked August 12 2013 Mini Johnnatta Giles

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Doktor D W Supporter
Open your Bible to read the original, Acts 10:34-35, then read this dynamic equivalent.translation:

The Apostle Peter said, "Of a truth I now see that God shows no favoritism or partiality with respect to people; He has in every nation on earth those who reverence Him, and therefore live in His Righteousness, and who are accepted in Him." 

See  as well 1 Timothy 2:4.

August 12 2013 1 response Vote Up Share Report

White blue peacock Karla Mcgrath
I have always thought that it meant that he does not play favorites between His children.  He doesn't respect a person because of a position such as "King" or because they are famous or beautiful, for example. This idea fits His character of love.

August 12 2013 1 response Vote Up Share Report

Stringio Scott Wright
My view is that God is like our "Lady of Justice" that is blind folded and holding scales in many court houses around our country. The blind folded lady means justice is blind. It is the same for each and every person.
I also feel that if God is no respecter of persons, that he will use each of us in His own way to accomplish His purposes. If you look at Bible stories like Gideon, David and Goliath, and the Egyptian Pharaoh in the story of Moses, you see examples of God using people to accomplish His purpose.
In Romans 9, we are told that God hardened Pharaohs heart. This was to help carry out His plan for the Jewish people. 
I hope this helps, and makes sense on only three hours of sleep, so far! :)

August 13 2013 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

Mini Stephanie Brooks
Acts 8:35. 

And said, of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons; which is to be understood, not of the substances of men, but of the outward state and condition, circumstances and qualities of men; he respects the proper persons of men themselves, but not because of their outward appearances; he does not prefer or despise men, because of their being of this or the other nation, as Jews or Gentiles; or because they are circumcised, or not circumcised; or because they are high or low, rich or poor, free or bound, or the like: the true sense here is, that God valued no man the more, because he was a Jew and circumcised, nor anyone the less, because he was a Gentile and uncircumcised; and this the apostle found to be a most certain truth, of which he was fully persuaded; partly by the vision which he himself saw, and partly by that which Cornelius had, and which the more confirmed him in this matter: these words do not at all militate against the doctrines of personal election and reprobation; and indeed, those acts in God, are not according to the outward state and condition of men, or any circumstances that attend them, or any qualities they have, internal or external; but entirely proceed from the sovereign will of God;

August 13 2013 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

Q jcryle001 JD Abshire
In principle, the statement made by Peter in Acts 10:34 was first made by Moses and recorded in Deuteronomy 10:17-19 “For the LORD your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward: He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment. Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.”

In Romans 2:11-12 Paul stated “For there is no respect of persons with God. For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;

Romans 3:29-30 “Is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.”

Romans 10:12-13 “For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him. For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

Read 1 Corinthians 1:23-31; it is very humbling. 

1 Corinthians 1:31 “That, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord.”

A wonderful on-line resource is http://www.blueletterbible.org/. You can look up passages by word, partial verses, etc. It also has several versions of the Bible with Strong’s concordance, Vine’s dictionary plus many study aids. I use it a lot and highly recommend it.

January 02 2014 1 response Vote Up Share Report

Mini Anonymous
Could it be that He is no respecter of persons, but a respecter of what one offer him? God received Abel offering, but refused or despised Cain,s.

August 13 2013 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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