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Is the concept of Lucifer's Flood biblical?



    
    

Clarify Share Report Asked July 01 2013 Mini Anonymous (via GotQuestions)

For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.

Family photo Charles Saliba

Psalm 18:15-19: "Then the fountains of waters appeared, and the foundations of the world were discovered: At thy rebuke, O Lord, at the blast of the spirit of thy wrath. He sent from on high, and took me: and received me out of many waters. He delivered me from my strongest enemies, and from them that hated me: for they were too strong for me. And he brought me forth into a large place: he saved me, because he was well pleased with me."


In the above Psalm, David is describing what actually happened in what it seems the flood caused by Lucifer himself by which he kick started his rebellion and killed all pre-Adam soulless humans. David is well clear in this psalm that God saved him, and well evident that He took him and put him on another planet. David, in respect of this psalm, is the only person that was saved, and it stands to reason that God in order to sustain a continuity in His creation, incarnated David on earth purposely to establish Jesus' lineage and the legal rights of kingship.

Jesus referred to this global catastrophe in John 8:44. "He was a murderer from the beginning..."

Also in Job 38:3 "Who shut up the sea with doors, when it broke forth as issuing out of the womb...9 when I made a cloud the garment thereof, and wrapped it in a mist as in swaddling bands? 10 I set my bounds around it, and made it bars and doors.
11 And I said : Hitherto thou shalt come, and shalt go no further, and here thou shalt break thy swelling waves."

To me, it is biblical for sure.

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