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What does it mean, “The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ”?



      

Revelation 11:15

ESV - 15 Then the seventh angel blew his trumpet, and there were loud voices in heaven, saying, "The kingdom of the world has become the kingdom of our Lord and of his Christ, and he shall reign forever and ever.

Clarify Share Report Asked November 10 2021 Mini Anonymous

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Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
I would first note that the verse cited in the question uses the singular word "kingdom", rather than "kingdoms" (as quoted by the questioner). To me, the difference is significant, because, when Satan tempted Jesus, he was prepared to give Jesus the "kingdoms" of the world in return for Jesus worshiping him, which would have signified Jesus' (and thus God's) acknowledgment that Satan was still in control over the "kingdom" of the world as a whole (that is, the fallen world system). (Jesus also indicated this at His trial before Pilate, when He told Pilate that His kingdom was not of this world.) 

By contrast, the depiction of end-times events, as noted by the verse cited in the question, indicates that the kingdom of the world will one day no longer be in Satan's control, but that Satan will have been finally and eternally deposed or overthrown, and that God the Father will reign, as will God the Son (that is, God's Christ, or His Anointed One), by virtue of the manner in which He was obedient to God the Father's will to the point of His suffering and atoning death, which were validated as sufficient by His subsequent resurrection.

November 10 2021 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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