Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army

The type of action of which Paul was speaking was prefigured in the Old Testament by the ritual involving the scapegoat (as described in Leviticus 16:20-22), in which the sins of the people were placed (through the laying on of the high priest's hands) upon a goat, which was then driven into the wilderness, symbolizing the removal of the people's sins from them.

This practice was further spoken of with respect to the coming Messiah in Isaiah's prophecy, where Isaiah referred to the man of sorrows upon whom God would lay "the iniquity of us all" (Isaiah 53:6).

When Jesus was crucified (bearing a punishment that He in no sense personally deserved based on His own actions), God the Father -- in a way that I don't think any of us can ever fully understand or appreciate -- caused Him to bear the eternal punishment from God deserved by all of humanity for all of its sins from eternity past to eternity future.

(This was why Jesus on the cross quoted David's words in Psalm 22:1 by saying, "My God, my God, why have You forsaken me?" God the Father could not look on God the Son substituting Himself for all humanity at that time (as symbolized by the darkness that occurred, as noted in Matthew 27:45, Mark 15:33, and Luke 23:44-45) because of the sin that He was bearing.)

This is also what Paul was referring to when he spoke of God making Jesus to be sin, although it in no way compromised the sinless nature of Christ Himself.

March 15 2020 • 3 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Aimee Williams

The Greek word here, "hamartias" in 1 Corinthians 5:21, can, based on its use in the Greek Old Testament, be either translated as "sin" or "sin-offering". The same word is used also in Romans 8:3 (where about half of versions translate "hamartias" as sin and the other half as sin-offering), and also twice in Hebrews 10:6-8 (where nearly all versions translate hamartias as either sin offering or sacrifice for sin), referring to Jesus as the sin offering and sacrifice for us.

In the Old Testament, specifically, in Leviticus chapters 4 and 5 that have to do with regulations for the sin offerings, here is an example of the usage of the Greek word "hamartias":

Leviticus 4:22-26: Unintentional sin of a leader:
22 ‘When a leader has sinned, and done something unintentionally... 23 or if his sin (hamartia) which he has sinned comes to his knowledge, he shall bring as his offering a kid of the goats, a male without blemish...24 It is a sin-offering (hamartia). 25 The priest shall take some of the blood of the sin-offering (hamartias)...So the priest shall make atonement for him concerning his sin (hamartias)...

Leviticus 4:27-32: Unintentional sin of a common person (person of the land):
27 ‘If anyone of the people of the land sins unintentionally... 28 or if his sin (hamartia) which he has sinned comes to his knowledge, then he shall bring as his offering a kid of the goats, a female without blemish, for his sin-offering (hamartias) which he has sinned. 

32 ‘If he brings a lamb as his sin-offering (hamartian), he shall bring a female without blemish. 33 Then he shall lay his hand on the head of the sin-offering (hamartias), and kill it at the place where they kill the burnt offering. 34 The priest shall take some of the blood of the sin-offering (hamartias)...35 So the priest shall make atonement for his sin (hamartias) that he has sinned, and it shall be forgiven him.

Additionally, if Jesus *became* sin, as many versions translate this verse as, then he would NOT have, as Hebrews 9:14 says, "offered himself without spot to God". He would have been defiled.

1 Peter 1:18-19
"Knowing that you were not redeemed with corruptible things, like silver or gold...but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish (amomon, G299) and without spot (aspilou, G784). 

Hebrews 7:26
"For such a High Priest [referring to Jesus] was fitting for us, who is holy, without evil, undefiled (amiantos, G283), separate from sinners, and has become higher than the heavens."

I really hope the study of these Greek words has helped. It has certainly helped me understand the sinlessness of Christ and the animal sacrificial system that he fulfilled and took away by the once and for all sacrifice of himself. 

Hebrews 10:11-4
11 And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. 12 But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God, 13 from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool. 14 For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.

January 29 2024 • 2 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Jack Gutknecht ABC/DTS graduate, guitar music ministry Baptist church

How did God make Jesus become sin? This may be an OT allusion to a sin offering (cf. Isaiah 53; Rom. 8:3). God offered Jesus as the sinless lamb (cf. John 1:29, 36).

I think Jesus' words from the cross, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me" (cf. Mark 15:34), which is a quote from Psalm 22, reflects the spiritual reality of the Father turning away from the Son (i.e., symbolized by the darkness, cf. Mark 15:33), as He bore the sin of the world. This is theologically parallel to Gal. 3:13, "having become a curse for us"!

The AMP version of 2 Corinthians 5:21 says,
"He made Christ who knew no sin to [judicially] be sin on our behalf, so that in Him we would become the righteousness of God [that is, we would be made acceptable to Him and placed in a right relationship with Him by His gracious lovingkindness]."

The AMPC version of 2 Cor. 5:21 has, 
"For our sake He made Christ [virtually] to be sin Who knew no sin, so that in and through Him we might become [endued with, viewed as being in, and examples of] the righteousness of God [what we ought to be, approved and acceptable and in right relationship with Him, by His goodness]."

The OJB (Orthodox Jewish Bible) says,
"The one who in his person had no da’as of chattat (sin) [Ac 3:14; Yn 8:46 = John 8:46; MJ 4:15 = Heb 4:15;; 7:26; 1K 2:22 = 1 Pe 2:22; 1Y 3:5= 1 Jn 3:5], this one Hashem made a chattat sin offering [Ga 3:13; YESHAYAH 53:10 = Isaiah 53:110; VAYIKRA 4:24 TARGUM HASHIVIM] on our behalf that we might become the Tzidkat Hashem [DANIEL 9:24"

--Daniel 9:24 says, "Seventy 'sevens' are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the Most Holy Place." How did Jesus put an end to sin? By being cut off, but not for Himself (Dan. 9:26). Jesus wasn't crucified for his own sins, but for ours. He didn't hang there on the cross in punishment for his own sins; he was sinless. 

OJB (ctd):
in Moshiach. [1C 1:30 = 1 Corinthians 1:30; Pp 3:9] [T.N. In this next chapter Rav Sha’ul warns against associations or worldly influences or fascinations that will contaminate the believer, who should not think he can have both the world’s evil pleasures and the House of G-d’s holy chelek.]

In summary, 

AMP
"He made Christ who knew no sin to [judicially] be sin on our behalf, so that in Him we would become the righteousness of God [that is, we would be made acceptable to Him and placed in a right relationship with Him by His gracious lovingkindness]."

AMPC
"For our sake He made Christ [virtually] to be sin Who knew no sin, so that in and through Him we might become [endued with, viewed as being in, and examples of] the righteousness of God [what we ought to be, approved and acceptable and in right relationship with Him, by His goodness]."

May 23 2020 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report