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How could Jesus be made sin when He was sinless? (2 Corinthians 5:21)

2 Corinthians 5:21 King James Version (KJV)

21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

2 Corinthians 5:21

NKJV - 21 For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.

Clarify Share Report Asked March 15 2020 My picture Jack Gutknecht

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Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
The type of action of which Paul was speaking was prefigured in the Old Testament by the ritual involving the scapegoat (as described in Leviticus 16:20-22), in which the sins of the people were placed (through the laying on of the high priest's hands) upon a goat, which was then driven into the wilderness, symbolizing the removal of the people's sins from them.

This practice was further spoken of with respect to the coming Messiah in Isaiah's prophecy, where Isaiah referred to the man of sorrows upon whom God would lay "the iniquity of us all" (Isaiah 53:6).

When Jesus was crucified (bearing a punishment that He in no sense personally deserved based on His own actions), God the Father -- in a way that I don't think any of us can ever fully understand or appreciate -- caused Him to bear the eternal punishment from God deserved by all of humanity for all of its sins from eternity past to eternity future.

(This was why Jesus on the cross quoted David's words in Psalm 22:1 by saying, "My God, my God, why have You forsaken me?" God the Father could not look on God the Son substituting Himself for all humanity at that time (as symbolized by the darkness that occurred, as noted in Matthew 27:45, Mark 15:33, and Luke 23:44-45) because of the sin that He was bearing.)

This is also what Paul was referring to when he spoke of God making Jesus to be sin, although it in no way compromised the sinless nature of Christ Himself.

March 15 2020 3 responses Vote Up Share Report


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My picture Jack Gutknecht ABC/DTS graduate, guitar music ministry Baptist church
How did God make Jesus become sin? This may be an OT allusion to a sin offering (cf. Isaiah 53; Rom. 8:3). God offered Jesus as the sinless lamb (cf. John 1:29, 36).

I think Jesus' words from the cross, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me" (cf. Mark 15:34), which is a quote from Psalm 22, reflects the spiritual reality of the Father turning away from the Son (i.e., symbolized by the darkness, cf. Mark 15:33), as He bore the sin of the world. This is theologically parallel to Gal. 3:13, "having become a curse for us"!

The AMP version of 2 Corinthians 5:21 says,
"He made Christ who knew no sin to [judicially] be sin on our behalf, so that in Him we would become the righteousness of God [that is, we would be made acceptable to Him and placed in a right relationship with Him by His gracious lovingkindness]."

The AMPC version of 2 Cor. 5:21 has, 
"For our sake He made Christ [virtually] to be sin Who knew no sin, so that in and through Him we might become [endued with, viewed as being in, and examples of] the righteousness of God [what we ought to be, approved and acceptable and in right relationship with Him, by His goodness]."

The OJB (Orthodox Jewish Bible) says,
"The one who in his person had no da’as of chattat (sin) [Ac 3:14; Yn 8:46 = John 8:46; MJ 4:15 = Heb 4:15;; 7:26; 1K 2:22 = 1 Pe 2:22; 1Y 3:5= 1 Jn 3:5], this one Hashem made a chattat sin offering [Ga 3:13; YESHAYAH 53:10 = Isaiah 53:110; VAYIKRA 4:24 TARGUM HASHIVIM] on our behalf that we might become the Tzidkat Hashem [DANIEL 9:24"

--Daniel 9:24 says, "Seventy 'sevens' are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the Most Holy Place." How did Jesus put an end to sin? By being cut off, but not for Himself (Dan. 9:26). Jesus wasn't crucified for his own sins, but for ours. He didn't hang there on the cross in punishment for his own sins; he was sinless. 

OJB (ctd):
in Moshiach. [1C 1:30 = 1 Corinthians 1:30; Pp 3:9] [T.N. In this next chapter Rav Sha’ul warns against associations or worldly influences or fascinations that will contaminate the believer, who should not think he can have both the world’s evil pleasures and the House of G-d’s holy chelek.]

In summary, 

AMP
"He made Christ who knew no sin to [judicially] be sin on our behalf, so that in Him we would become the righteousness of God [that is, we would be made acceptable to Him and placed in a right relationship with Him by His gracious lovingkindness]."

AMPC
"For our sake He made Christ [virtually] to be sin Who knew no sin, so that in and through Him we might become [endued with, viewed as being in, and examples of] the righteousness of God [what we ought to be, approved and acceptable and in right relationship with Him, by His goodness]."

May 23 2020 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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