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Why did Jesus read these specific verses from Isaiah when he spoke in the synagogue and why did he stop in the middle of second verse?

Isaiah 61:1-2: The Spirit of the LORD is upon Me, Because He has anointed Me To preach the gospel to the poor; He has sent Me to heal the brokenhearted, To proclaim liberty to the captives And recovery of sight to the blind, To set at liberty those who are oppressed. To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD.

Luke 4:18 - 19

NKJV - 18 The Spirit of the LORD is upon Me, Because He has anointed Me To preach the gospel to the poor; He has sent Me to heal the brokenhearted, To proclaim liberty to the captives And recovery of sight to the blind, To set at liberty those who are oppressed. 19 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD.

Clarify Share Report Asked January 20 2018 Mini Alex Kovalev

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Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
I would say that Jesus quoted the passage in the way that He did because the portion that He quoted was the part of the verses that pertained to His ministry at that time, which was centered on providing the means for the salvation of humanity -- that is, "setting them free" (through His sinless life, sacrificial death, and resurrection) from sin and eternal separation from God. The part of the passage that He omitted (pertaining to proclaiming the "day of vengeance of our God") will indeed take place, but it will be when He comes again in glory at the close of the present age.

(Biblical Israel -- due to their desire to be liberated, not in a spiritual sense, but in a physical sense from their subjugation by the Romans -- placed the emphasis on Old Testament prophecies that spoke of the conquering nature of the Messiah's (second) coming, while overlooking the prophecies (such as Isaiah 53) that dealt with the suffering and death that He would undergo at His first coming. They largely rejected Jesus as the Messiah because His actions did not conform to their selective interpretation of what the Messiah would experience and accomplish.)

January 20 2018 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Img 0474 Greg Serafino Pastor of Osceola Grace Church in the Midwest
In addition to the above answer would be that verse divisions were not in existence in the Hebrew Bible until 1571. With this truth in mind, it would be clear that Jesus was not stopping mid verse in his quote from Isaiah. However, he would have ended the quote while the thought could have been continued but as stated above, He is addressing current ministry time frames.
Here is a link that explains the chapter and verse divisions and their timing - It is not exhaustive but it is concise:https://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don_stewart/don_stewart_273.cfm

January 30 2018 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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