I was teaching about the properties of drinking water to a kid ( 8 Yrs). His teacher had given the answer "Drinking water is colourless, odourless and tasteless. It should be potable and safe." I said that pure water is tasteless; drinking water can be tasty and drinking water from different sources tastes differently. To highlight this, I told the events discussed in Samuel 23: 15-17. (Drinking water was tasty, the king longed for the water of his place). When I said that David did not drink it, but rather poured it to the Lord, the child asked, "Is it not waste of their efforts? Would not God have been pleased if he had asked them to drink?" Exactly what is meant by "poured it to Lord"? I assumed that he poured it on the ground. I seek further clarification about the nature of this act.
2 Samuel 23:15 - 17
ESV - 15 And David said longingly, "Oh, that someone would give me water to drink from the well of Bethlehem that is by the gate! 16 Then the three mighty men broke through the camp of the Philistines and drew water out of the well of Bethlehem that was by the gate and carried and brought it to David. But he would not drink of it. He poured it out to the Lord
For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.