S. Michael Houdmann Supporter Got Questions Ministries

At first glance, the prophecy in Ezekiel 28:11-19 seems to refer to a human king. The city of Tyre was the recipient of some of the strongest prophetic condemnations in the Bible (Isaiah 23:1-18; J...

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July 01 2013 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Jason Corning The Order of the Maccabee

Yes and no. Ezekiel is referring to both the King of Tyre and Satan (as one of the King's major spiritual influences) and uses classic prophetic metaphor to make both understandings the Truth.

September 16 2013 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Larry Truelove

I do not believe it is referring to Satan. Some scholars view it as a "taunt song." That is, the prophet mocks a literal earthly ruler.

Some ancient earthly rulers sought to exalt themselves and allowed their subject to worship them as a son of the gods (not Jehovah but some false god).

In such a case their subjects might view the king as existing at creation. If the subjects were superstitious, they might well believe it. Remember, their subjects might seek to flatter their king, particularly if that king had the power of life and death over them.

The prophet Ezekiel would warn the literal King of Tyre that such conduct would not be tolerated. So, the warning might be composed as a song, using such flattering phrases in a style of mockery.

Something like: You think you are hot stuff, a god, worthy of worship? The true God will show you that you will be brought low. You will be destroyed."

Scholars have found legendary myths in the religious literature of the time. Some of them similar to our account of Genesis, no doubt distorted. So, the prophet Ezekiel, noting such distortion, acknowledged its falseness and declared the destruction of that king.

November 22 2014 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Kenneth Heck

Over specific peoples a very high angel or archangel presided in ancient times as if they had authority delegated from the throne of God, the true king of the earth. Thus we have the prince of Persia (Dan 10:13), the prince of Grecia (Dan 10:20) and Michael, the chief prince of Israel (Dan 10:21). Likewise, we have Gog, the chief prince of Meshech and Tubal (Eze. 38:2). Christ was called the "prince of princes" before his incarnation (Dan 8:25) indicating his exalted position above all other princes.

Even so, great angels are also called men, as Gabriel was in Dan 9:21 and the two angels visiting Sodom (Gen 18:2, 19:1). The nature of the text in chapter 28 indicates it is not referring to a human being. The terms "prince of Tyrus" and "king of Tyrus" are actually referring to a great angel who is known for his iniquity. The prince of Tyrus could have also been legitimately called a king if he used a human body in acting directly as a king. 

This angel is not Satan, but he might be in league with Satan. As Christians we are here to engage in battle with iniquity in high places (Eph 6:12) and this would include the prince of Tyrus, if he were still in a high position.

We as Christians have a difficult time discriminating between sources of evil and iniquity such as with the devil, satan, lucifer, the serpent, etc. Actually we don't really need to discriminate since we are here to overcome regardless of the source.

July 18 2017 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Dave Mohler Preacher's kid.

My view is that the rebellion of Satan is reflected in the actions of the King of Tyre. The one-way dialogue in Ez. 28 shows that Satan was created perfect, saw the moment of God's creation, no secret was hidden from him, was himself created, and thus was forewarned regarding his inferior position compared to that of God. His ultimate rebellion was a declaration of war that continues today. My other interest in this passage is that Satan was privileged to walk among the Stones of Fire at the time of the creation. 

Respectfully, Dave Mohler

November 21 2023 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Bryan Naidoo Post graduate and pastor

Certainly not. This was an error by theologians and leaders to use these scriptures to explain the fall of Satan.

Throughout the Bible, the one that has fallen is man, man's fall is repeated over and over again. Satan is not the one that has fallen, rather he was created as the fallen one to tempt, test and entice man to fall.

If Satan has fallen, what is he doing in heaven in the book of job (Job1: 6)with the angels of god presently himself to God. Futherstill imagine the beautiful conversation Satan had with the living God. Yet fallen man could not have "such" conversations because he has fallen.

Ezekiel has to do with the king of type, who was brought down. Again I repeat the only reason theologians have used these scriptures was to satisfy and explain the existence of Satan. They have failed to realize that God created good and evil for his glory. We would not know what is good if there was no evil, likewise we would not know what is light is there was no darkness. Who do we think was behind all this, God of course.

We know how man fell and we know who seduced man to fall. The question that must be asked, who seduced Satan for Satan to fall. Did Satan also have the power of choice which is most unlikely, because he was not created in gods image, did pride just crop up suddenly in this innocent angel. How and where did this "pride" Come from, was there a another diabolical power we have not heard off who tempted Satan.

In conclusion, Ezekiel has nothing to do with the existence of Satan.

July 17 2017 • 1 response • Vote Up • Share • Report