Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army

Although Jesus' use of the expression "the third day" in this verse might seem to be a reference similar to other occasions (such as Matthew 16:21) when He referred to His forthcoming crucifixion and resurrection, He was (in my opinion) here instead using a standard proverbial form of speaking which denoted only a fixed or limited period of time.

By using this expression, He was emphasizing the short duration that remained before the end of His earthly mission, when He would finish His course (or "be perfected" as some other translations of this verse at http://www.biblehub.com express it) by completing the work of salvation for humanity that He had come to earth to perform. 

He was also implying that neither Herod nor any of the other human and spiritual forces opposing Him would be able to deter or prevent Him from completing that work.

August 12 2016 • 1 response • Vote Up • Share • Report

Kenneth Heck

This verse has been translated in different ways regarding the third day.

KJV "on the third day I shall be perfected"

NKJV "on the third day I shall have finished" 

NIV "on the third day I shall reach my goal"

NJB "on the third day [I] attain my end"

Douay ""and the third day I am consummated"

NAB "on the third day my purpose is accomplished"

There is a consistent distinction between the first two days and the third day. My personal opinion is that the first two days represent the first two thousand years (approximately) of Christianity. The third day is the thousand years that Christ rules the Kingdom of God on earth while reigning from the throne of his father in heaven

There is the notion in the gospels that Christ did not speak clearly to those not believing in him. In this instance he was replying to the Pharisees about his right to reside in Jerusalem. The Pharisees attempted to give him an order to leave Jerusalem since they believed Herod was seeking to kill him.

August 12 2016 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report