What is Inerrancy of Scripture?


Clarify Share Report Asked March 21 2016 2014 05 11 18.15.40 Salvador Silva

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Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
My understanding of the inerrancy of Scripture is that the writings that comprise the Bible, in the original languages in which they were written, were precisely (down to a word-for-word level) what God Himself wanted or inspired the writers to say, and that those writings, when all facts are known (which may not be within the earthly life of any particular individual, or even within this present age), and when properly interpreted, will be found to be without error in all matters that they cover, including theology, history, and science.

Proper interpretation involves asking questions such as: Who was the author and who was the audience to which he was writing? What was the occasion or purpose for the author writing this work? What was the background (both cultural and historical) of the people or individual to which he wrote? At that time in history, what did the words mean, in their original languages, to the people or individuals to whom the document was written?)

For example, there is the frequently cited case of Joshua commanding the sun to stand still (Joshua 10:12-13). This would have been in accord with the common perception, at the time that the account was written, that the sun moved around the earth, rather than the earth rotating on its axis and revolving around the sun. Nevertheless, there is an accurate description of the end effect that actually occurred (that is, the lengthening of that day).

This definition takes into account the incomplete state of our current knowledge. It also (again, by my understanding) does not encompass subsequent copies of the original manuscripts, or translations of these writings into other languages. (Even so, modern scholarly and widely-read versions of the Bible are generally remarkable for their consistency, with the exception of "translations" that are distinctive to or associated only with a particular sect or cult; that are skewed toward that group's unique beliefs; and that cannot be supported by reference to "mainstream" translations.)

November 24 2016 1 response Vote Up Share Report

Andy  3 photo Andy Mangus I am a Christian since October 1979 & devoted truth seeker.
My short and direct answer is this: God's promises; God's revelations; God's purity; God's Holy and Divine Word is absolute and eternal TRUTH! "In the beginning was The Word! The Word was with God! And, The Word was GOD!" This eternal Truth is forever purity of God's revelations and promises He made for His children! The inerrancy of God's written word is His providence and truth as revealed by specific human authors as He directed. God is and has been and always will be in total control of His Providence. Man may 'think' that he can have or get control of his whole life, but life transpires along the manner that is within His master plans. Example: God's providence is so dramatically revealed in The Book of Revelations. While isolated on the Isle of Patmos, Apostle Paul 'wrote' the book of 'the final chapter or book of the end of times for any and all of God's children. We call it The Book of Revelations.

"The redeemed of The Lord shall dwell in the bosom and everlasting presence with Him for everlasting to everlasting unto eternity"

"Praise God that He provided a Savior! And, His name is Jesus Christ!"


September 07 2017 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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