Why does Jesus in Mark 2:25-26 refer to the high priest as Abiathar, but in 1 Samuel 21 the high priest is named Ahimelek?


Clarify Share Report Asked August 29 2015 Open uri20131118 12397 196fd2r Peter MowlahBaksh

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Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
The words of the text say, "in the days of Abiathar the high priest". This could be interpreted (as in the question) as referring to the period when Abiathar was the high priest, which would raise the issue noted by the questioner.

However, the text could also be read as referring to an event that took place during Abiathar's lifetime (that is, in his days), but before the period when he actually served as high priest, when he was acting as an assistant to his father Ahimelek, in Ahimelek's capacity as the high priest at that time. 

Abiathar could nevertheless have been referred to as "the high priest" by Jesus because Abiathar did in fact eventually hold the office of high priest, and it was for that office for which he would have been most noted.

It would be analogous to referring to someone who eventually served as President of the United States by the title of "President", even when talking about offices that he held, or events that occurred in his life, prior to assuming the presidency, and even though he was not president at the time. (For example, "From 2004 to 2008, President Obama served in the United States Senate." or "In the days of President Washington," which could refer to any time between his birth in 1732 and his death in 1799, rather than being limited to his term as president from 1789 to 1797.)

August 30 2015 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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