JD Abshire

I suppose it stems from the false belief of what's termed, the "immaculate conception". If correct, I understand Catholics believe that Mary, mother of Jesus was conceived by normal biological means yet God shielded her soul preventing contamination from sin at the time of conception. Mary was thereby immaculately conceived and without sin which was necessary to give birth to a sinless offspring, Jesus the Christ.

First and foremost, Yeshua did not become sinless upon incarnation. He has always been the sinless Son of God. Secondly, sin does not reside in the body, the biological flesh. It resides in the soul, the mind and very core of humanity. " But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. 
Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." (James 1:14-15).

Who does the sin nature affect? " For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;" (Romans 3:23). " Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:" (Romans 5:12). I see no exemptions or exclusions except the Lord Jesus who is God by nature whom took on the likeness of sinful flesh (Romans 8:3).

Acts 4:12 states: " Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved."

" Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world." (1 John 4:1)

"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ. For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:" (Colossians 2:8-10)

July 12 2015 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

MARILYN FRIVALDO

Luke 1:46-47 tells, "And Mary said: 'My soul glorifies the Lord, and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior.'"

Mary said these lines in Mary's song (Luke 1:46-55), while she's with her cousin Elizabeth (who's also pregnant that time with John the Baptist). She sang those words at the time she was also pregnant with Jesus, through the power of the Holy Spirit. 

The fact that she said her spirit rejoices in God her Savior, she means that she acknowledges her sinful state, as all men are in that state (Romans 3:23). So it means it is impossible for Mary to have a special state that she has not sinned before, during or after giving birth to Jesus the Savior. That is absolutely untrue.

What was special is the calling of God, for Mary to be chosen under the lineage of Judah, to be the woman through whom the God turned Man, a sinless Man, could pass through. But we should not forget that the Caller is more than special, and even Divine. That's why Jesus is qualified to save sinners from their sin, including Mary's sins.

July 21 2015 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Linda Garza

The whole redemption plan of God was to send His Son by means of incarnation to a virgin. This Son being both 100% man and 100% God would be tempted in all ways yet would not, did not, sin. He was the only One qualified to bear the sins of the world and be our substitute. He paid our wages and gave us His righteousness that we may be reconciled to the Father.
If Catholism believes that Mary was conceived without sin, then it could have been Mary that went to the cross and died for the world.
Only Jesus is worthy. He alone is able to open the seven seal scroll in the book of Revelation that is His deed to all and Righteous Judgement on those who have rejected truth.

December 27 2015 • 1 response • Vote Up • Share • Report