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In these verses, what is the difference between having knowledge and having authority?



      

Mark 1:21 - 22

LS1910 - 21 Ils se rendirent à Capernaüm. Et, le jour du sabbat, Jésus entra d'abord dans la synagogue, et il enseigna. 22 Ils étaient frappés de sa doctrine; car il enseignait comme ayant autorité, et non pas comme les scribes.

Clarify Share Report Asked March 21 2015 Mini Anonymous

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Mini Scott Broberg Fig Tree Ministries
The word "authority" carries a technical meaning within 1st-century Judaism. 

Having "authority" is like the Pope in the Catholic church vs. An ordinary priest. A Pope can make new rulings for the community whereas an ordinary priest cannot. 

The Hebrew word is 'Sme-chka.' 

Notice in verse 22 that the people were "amazed at his teaching," and then it compares Jesus to the scribes (in other verses he is compared to the teachers of the law). Jesus is teaching them as one who has 'sme-chka.' "You have heard it said, 'xyz,' but I tell you, 'ABC,' a new teaching."

We find the same thing happening in Mark 11:28. The chief priests and teachers of the law want to know - "Who gave you authority?" 

If Jesus HAS authority, then they have to listen to him. But they don't want to listen to him! 

A person received "authority" by two other people, who both had authority, placing their hands on him and proclaiming that they now have authority. Like Moses with the elders. 

So who gave Jesus authority? Well, Jesus answers their question in Mark 11:29-30 - John's baptism. 

John was a prophet from God, so he had authority. The second is God himself. Descending in the form of the Spirit to proclaim His son (Mark 1:11). 

Notice in Mark 11 that they won't answer Jesus' question. They don't want to admit he has "authority" from God. 

Jesus teaches as "one who has authority," NOT as the scribes.

August 27 2020 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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