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Why did God change the laws that man must obey from the Old to New Testament?



    
    

Clarify Share Report Asked February 16 2015 Mini Gary Creel

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Mini Aurel Gheorghe
Actually God did not change His law, man have tried to do that, but God's law remains forever (Daniel 7:25). Jesus in Matthew 5:17, cannot be more clearer about His law: "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them." It's up to us to read the Scriptures and decide if we want to follow and obey His word. 

The only difference is that in the NT, the ceremonial law was abolished because Jesus, the Lamb of God, gave Himself as a sacrifice for our sins and there is no more need for the temple animal sacrifice. Paul talks a lot about the fact the ceremonial law was a shadow of Christ, and Christ as a reality in the New Testament (Hebrews 7:18-19,10:1, Colossians 2:17). 

Obviously, the Ten Commandments are still in effect, and would be ridiculous to think that under the NT covenant we can break any of the Ten Commandments. People have argued that we are now under grace and not under the law; and that is true; however, are we allowed then to have other gods, worship idols, disrespect parents, murder, fornicate, steal, lie, or covet? Of course not! 

There is much debate among many Christians about the need to obey the Fourth Commandant. First, let's be clear, the Sabbath was given to man in the Garden of Eden, as a monument of Creation, as a reminder that we are God's children and he is our Creator (Genesis 2:2–3). A day in which God wants us to stop, leave everything behind for 24 hours and talk with Him and be blessed. Nothing has changed, God is still our Creator, the Sabbath day is still the seventh day and holy. Yes, we can pray and worship God everyday of the week, we can gather together to bring him prays anytime, but only the Sabbath day was made holy by God (Exodus 20:8-11). If Jesus wanted us to rest from our labor and make other day holy, he would have told us that while He was on Earth. But He didn't and the only thing I can go by is His Scriptures. 

I wrote a more extensive answer about the God's law and the NT and if interested please follow this link:
https://ebible.com/questions/11989-did-jesus-follow-all-the-laws-of-the-old-testament#answer-19020

February 17 2015 3 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Ari Ariel HaNaviy Messianic Jew and Torah Teacher with Messianic Congregation 'The Harvest'
God did not change any of his laws. God does not change (Mal. 3:6). Nor did his Son Yeshua (Jesus) change any of the laws. Yeshua also does not change, for he is the same yesterday, today, and forever (Heb. 13:8). 

But, some will object, didn't the writer of Hebrews speak about a change in the Law? Yeshua did in fact walk into a priestly office that was radically different from the established Law spelled out in the Torah: “For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. For the one of whom these things are spoken belonged to another tribe, from which no one has ever served at the altar. For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests.” (Heb. 7:12-14) This difference is termed “change of law” (Greek=nomou metathesis) in Hebrews, but it should not be understood as having changed the Torah Law, particularly the earthy law governing priests. The verse primarily teaches that Yeshua originates from a different line of priests, that is, one taking its governance from a heavenly authority, a line that is “changed” from the earthly line. For as we will read below, earthly Levitical priests will again be serving in their office in the 1000 year reign of Christ here on Earth. This means both earthly lines and heavenly lines work in tandem to bring about the Will of God. They do not compete with one another. On the contrary, they compliment one another.

Concerning the author’s point in Hebrews, we can safely conclude as follows: If he were teaching that the Torah has been abolished and is no longer applicable, then he would not be teaching that a change of the Torah must take place. One would never consider that a law which has been decommissioned ever needs to be changed! Once a law ceases to be law, it no longer is enforceable and is therefore no longer considered viable or necessary to be administrated. So, the fact that our author speaks of a change taking place means that he considers the Torah to be active and viable. Indeed, the viability of the Torah is why he feels the necessity to speak to the issue of priestly lineage in the first place.

Moreover, the so-called the three-fold division of the Law idea must be abandoned if we are to accept the whole Bible as one harmonious unit. The TaNaKH (called Old Testament by some) never differentiates between so-called moral, ceremonial, and civil commandments. For instance, many call the Sabbath a ceremonial command, yet repeated remorseless violation of it drew the death penalty (Ex. 31:14, 15). If it is merely a ceremonial commandment, and not a moral one, why attach the death penalty to its violation? Besides, we know it too (along with sacrifices) will be enforced during the Millennium.

Case in point: read Isa. 66:21-23 which has all the world keeping the seventh day Sabbath in the Millennium: “And some of them also I will take for priests and for Levites, says the Lord. “For as the new heavens and the new earth that I make shall remain before me, says the Lord, so shall your offspring and your name remain. From new moon to new moon, and from Sabbath to Sabbath. All flesh shall come to worship before me, declares the Lord.”

September 02 2015 3 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Data Danny Hickman Believer in The Gospel Of Jesus Christ
God didn't change the laws that we must obey from the old to new testament.

Jesus is recorded by Matthew as telling His disciples He didn't come to abolish the law but to fulfill it Matt. 5:17....not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law UNTIL all is fulfilled Matt. 5:18b. So, the question is, do you you believe Jesus did what He claimed He came to do, fulfill the Law?

What is fulfill? According to Webster it is to 'carry out, bring to realization, perform, to SATISFY requirements, obligations, etc'. So Jesus says He came to satisfy the requirements of the Law. Did He do that for Himself or for the world? For God so loved the world....John 3:16.

There is now no condemnation to those who are in Christ... Romans 8:1. If I am in Christ then I have satisfied the requirements of the Law, that's why I'm no longer condemned.

I took a test to be licensed to drive when I was 16 years old. I passed the test so I satisfied the requirements of the DMV for the entire United States, even though not all the laws are the same for all 50 states.That was 45 years ago and I haven't had to take the test again, although laws have changed over the years. 
Fulfilled once and for all time. Why would I study for the test and take it over again?

The Law and the Prophets were until John; since then the good news of the kingdom of God is preached...Luke 16:16.

Titus 3:9 Avoid foolish arguments... and quarrels about the Law, they are unprofitable and worthless.

If you are bent on keeping rules, keep that one.

September 11 2016 2 responses Vote Up Share Report


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