If Abraham was considered righteous because of his faith in God why was Israel given the law?


Clarify Share Report Asked January 29 2015 Data Bill Gillan

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Q jcryle001 JD Abshire
A distinction needs to be made between spiritual Israel and corporate Israel. The later is comprised of both believers and non believers just like our society today. Being of Jewish descent is no more a guarantee of being one of God's elect than you or myself being Bill Gates 15th cousin guarantees us a brilliant mind and financial success.

Paul stated in Romans 9: 6-8 " Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel: Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called. That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed." 

Romans 5:13 "(For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law."

Romans 5:20 "Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:"

I believe the Apostle Paul is stating in verse 5 that a charge of sin is not imputed or laid to one's account if there is no law to forbid the act or action. I.e. how could I be charged with doing 10 miles per hour over the speed limit (breaking the law) if there is no speed limit? 

In verse 20 we find out why the law was implemented, that sinful acts or actions could be justly condemned, man would then be aware of his terrible, sinful condition and inability to keep the law in compliance with God's righteous demands. The penitent would then realize his need for a savior, a redeemer, the only that can save from sin, death and hell.

February 01 2015 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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