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Why is it significant that Joseph 'did not know' his wife until after Jesus was born?



      

Matthew 1:25

NKJV - 25 And did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name JESUS.

Clarify Share Report Asked November 16 2014 Mini Anonymous

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3
Image41 Ezekiel Kimosop
Certainly yes.
This was significant in the sense that if Joseph had "slept" with Mary before the birth of Christ, this would have given the critics the ammunition to declare that Jesus was not born of divine conception.

However, this scripture implies that Jesus had other siblings who were born by the union of Mary and Joseph after He was born. The official teaching of the Roman Catholic Church rejects this fact. They teach that that Mary did not conceive any child after Jesus was born.

November 17 2014 3 responses Vote Up Share Report


2
Q jcryle001 JD Abshire
In Luke 1:26-35 we read the account of Gabriel's announcement to Mary that she would conceive and bear a son. In v. 34 Mary responds: " Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?"

This type of knowledge or "knowing" has to mean something different from simply having information concerning an individual. She obviously knew who Joseph was because verse 27 states she was espoused or engaged to him.

Genesis 4:1 states: " And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD. In these passages the words known and knew are idioms meaning sexual intercourse. 

This understanding is especially significant pertaining to our Lord and savior's conception. Matthew 1:25 is further evidence and confirmation that Joseph in no way contributed to the conception of the Lord Jesus, fulfilling the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 " Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."

Matthew 1:20 "But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost."

November 17 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


1
Mini Wambui Mburu
Shalom
I believe this was to fulfill a prophetic word that confirms Jesus as the Messiah,Son of God. 

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel.

The first part 'the virgin shall conceive' of this prophesy is revealed and fulfilled when the Angel came to announce the birth of the Saviour to Mary:

Luke 1:31-32
And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bring forth a Son, and shall call His name Jesus. 32 He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Highest; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David.

Luke 1:34 Then Mary said to the angel, “How can this be, since I do not know a man?” 

The Angel goes on to tell her how this was to be:

Luke 1:35
And the angel answered and said to her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God.

And of course the part of 'bear a Son' is fulfilled in Matthew 1:25.

Yours is the glory, great and awesome God!

November 17 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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