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Ron Godinez


      

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Why does KJV use 'Jesus' instead of 'Joshua' in Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8?

Why did the translators choose to use Jesus' name? The context refers to...

Hebrews 4:8

8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on.

Comment 1 Answer 3 Votes Asked November 27 2013