1

Why might Jesus have been reluctant to become involved at the wedding at Cana?

Why does it seem Jesus was reluctant to get involved at first (based on what He said to His mother)?

John 2:1 - 11

YLT - 1 And the third day a marriage happened in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. 2 And also Jesus was called, and his disciples, to the marriage.

Clarify Share Report Asked September 13 2014 Stringio Wayne Murphy

Community answers are sorted based on votes. The higher the vote, the further up an answer is.

3
Stringio Helena Jones
Jesus' response to his mother was, "Woman, what does that have to do with me? It is not yet my time."(Paraphrasing) If we take a look at the history of Moses, he went out before his Israelite brothers while he was still residing in the palace with Pharaoh, and came between the fight of the two Israelite men. At least one of them asked him who made him their ruler. (History later proved that Moses would become their leader) Right before this he asked Moses if he was going to murder them as he had the Egyptian man that he murdered. 

I am reminded of a sermon I heard Bishop TD Jakes teach about. He explained that Moses was acting on an instinct that God had placed inside of him to lead the people of Israel out of Egypt. But he was moving ahead of God's timing. He ended up having to run away from Egypt and live in the wilderness for forty years, though God used all of his mistakes for the good of those who love God, and for those who are called for his purpose.

So, Moses walked out of God's timing, as Jesus did not want to do, understanding that it is best to move in God's timing instead of our own. Ecclesiastes 3:1, reads, "There is a time for everything & Ecclesiastes 8:5-6 reads, "A wise heart will know the proper time and procedure. For there is a proper time and procedure for every matter."

September 14 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


2
Q jcryle001 JD Abshire
I feel we must first consider that Mary, Jesus' mother, knew he was the Messiah, the eternal Son of God in the flesh (Luke 1:46-55). Although this is the first recorded miracle, Mary may have already witnessed his miraculous power privately, the scripture does not tell us. If not, her believing heart and eyes of faith were complete assurance concerning the Lord's abilities.

John 2:3 "And when they wanted wine, the mother of Jesus saith unto him, They have no wine." Was Mary simply expressing concern that there was no wine for the wedding party and suggesting that Jesus "fix" it, or was she suggesting that he seize this golden opportunity to publicly demonstrate his power or both?

John 2:4 "Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? Mine hour is not yet come."

I believe the Lord's response in v. 4 was one of mild yet stern rebuke. I.e. "What has your concern to do with me, woman? Mine hour is not yet come." 
He made the same or similar statement several times. His time, his glorification would be in completion of his mission. Although much more, the primary purpose was to fulfill the Father's will as the lamb slain from the foundation of the world (Revelation 13:8) 

What was Christ's concern? John 4:34 "Jesus saith unto them, My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work." 
Hebrews 10:9 "Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second."

It is admirable that in John 2:5 Mary humbles herself and submits her will to that of her Lord and savior: "His mother saith unto the servants, "Whatsoever he saith unto you, do it."

By Christ performing the miracle we know it was not outside the will of God yet the miracle was to be done in a specific manner and at the specific time willed by God. As with Mary, I believe this is the case with many of us true believers. Our desires and requests are honorable and within the will of God but we must trust our sovereign to accomplish his divine plan and purpose for our lives according to his will, manner and timetable and not ours. 

I also believe that the dialogue in John 2 teaches that although Mary was blessed among women and no doubt a Godly woman, she in no way was or has become a co-mediator, queen of heaven or co-redemptrix, etc. "Woman what have I to do with thee?" Christ is our only advocate with the Father. 1 Timothy 2:5 "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;" Mary was never designed or purposed to be our advocate with the Son.

He said in Isaiah 42:8 "I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images."

September 15 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


Add your Answer

All answers are REVIEWED and MODERATED.
Please ensure your answer MEETS all our guidelines.

What makes a good answer? ▼

A good answer provides new insight and perspective. Here are guidelines to help facilitate a meaningful learning experience for everyone.

  1. Adhere to the eBible Statement of Faith.
  2. Your answer should be complete and stand-alone.
  3. Include supporting arguments, and scripture references if possible. Seek to answer the "why".
  4. Adhere to a proper tone and spirit of love and understanding.
  5. For more info see The Complete Guide to eBible
Header
  1. 4000 characters remaining