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Donna Williams
Supporter
I believe the reason has to do with who the LORD (YAHWEH) is speaking to or speaking about. The names are used interchangeably when the LORD is speaking about Jacob the son of Isaac, or the nation of Israel, or the land of Israel. I believe that it depends on the context of scripture. Please see Isaiah chapters 43-44, as a point of reference. Of course there are many others in the Old Testament that reference both names.
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