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Is this the only sin David committed? (1 Kings 15:5)

According to this verse, David was without sin except on one occasion—the sin involving Bathsheba! It claims David “had not turned aside from anything that He [God] commanded him all the days of his life, except in the matter of Uriah the Hittite.” But, this is both contrary to general statements about fallen human beings (cf. Gen. 6:5; Jer. 17:9; Rom. 3:10–23) and specific condemnations of David on other occasions. David himself said, after God convicted him for numbering Israel (1 Chron. 21:1), “I have sinned greatly” (1 Chron. 21:8).

1 Kings 15:1 - 8

ESV - 1 Now in the eighteenth year of King Jeroboam the son of Nebat, Abijam began to reign over Judah. 2 He reigned for three years in Jerusalem. His mother's name was Maacah the daughter of Abishalom.

Clarify Share Report Asked August 29 2022 Mini Anonymous

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Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
One available commentary on this verse (viewable at https://biblehub.com/commentaries/1_kings/15-5.htm) justifies the omission of David's other recorded sins (aside from his adultery with Bathsheba and ordering the death of Uriah) by saying that those other sins did not represent a continuing, habitual apostasy from God (as indicated by not being called a "turning aside"), and by the depiction of those other actions as sudden and transient events that were soon either repented of or blotted out, or that were more accurately regarded as mistakes of judgment without full conscious awareness of their sinfulness.

August 29 2022 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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