Why in Matthew 12:21 does it say Jesus came for the Gentiles?
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Asked July 18 2022
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Carolyn DeLautre
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Tim Maas
The cited verse is not the only indication or prophecy in the Bible indicating that Jesus came not only to bring salvation to Israel, but also to the Gentiles. As recounted in the gospel of Luke (Luke 2:25-32), when Joseph and Mary brought the infant Jesus to Jerusalem to dedicate Him to the LORD (as required by Exodus 13 for first-born male offspring), they were met by the prophet Simeon (to whom God had revealed that he would not die before he had seen the Messiah). In his words to Joseph and Mary (known as the Nunc Dimittis), Simeon referred to Jesus as not only the glory of Israel, but also as "a light to lighten the Gentiles". These verses (in addition to Isaiah 42:1-4, which was the prophecy referenced in the passage from Matthew cited in the question) indicate that Jesus was always intended by God to make salvation possible not only for Israel, but for all Gentile nations as well, which was fully realized when the Roman centurion Cornelius and his household were unmistakably indicated as having received the Holy Spirit in Acts 10, just as had happened at the Jewish observance of Pentecost after Jesus' ascension (Acts 2).
Jack Gutknecht
The text closes with a worldwide promise, "In his name will the Gentiles hope." The message of Christ's forgiveness and tenderness is not limited to the bruised reeds of Israel. Even though Jesus is the Jewish Messiah, the good news of his final victory over evil will reach every nation; and there will be people from every tribe and tongue and nation who set their hope on Jesus Christ. (Piper) I am so glad that God did not limit His Good News to the Jews only, because I am a gentile! I love my gentle ruler who will bring justice to the nations. In my life, Jesus is working quietly according to His perfect timing. I praise God for this. I just have to listen for His "still, small voice." (1 Kings 19:12).
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