Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army

The question seems to be related to the subject of preterism, which (as I understand it) is the belief that the end-times prophecies in the Bible have already been fulfilled in the first century AD.

The preterist position is based on the belief that, because Jesus said in Matthew 24:34 that "this generation will not pass away until all these things [that is, the end-times events of which He was speaking in Matthew 24] take place," the events (including the rapture) of which He was speaking thus occurred in connection with the sacking of Jerusalem and the destruction of the temple by the Romans in AD 70 (that is, within the lifetime of those who were hearing His words).

However, the end-times events of which Jesus was speaking also included His return in glory (Matthew 24:30-31), which has obviously not yet occurred, since Jesus said that "all tribes of the earth" would see it. Therefore, the "generation" to which Jesus was referring could not have been the generation living at the time He spoke, but the generation that would be alive at the unspecified future time when the end-times events of which He was speaking in Matthew 24 would begin to occur. The rapture therefore could not have occurred in AD 70.

January 04 2018 • 8 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Carol Brown

Who was Jesus talking to when he said, "So likewise YOU, when YOU shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors. Truly I say unto YOU, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled"? And in what other contexts were the words "this generation" used, but when referring to the generation at that time? 

And all those events DID take place: Col 1:5-6: For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel; which is come unto you, as it is in ALL THE WORLD. Luke 21:20: And when you shall see Jerusalem surrounded with armies (i.e. Roman soldiers), then know that the DESOLATION thereof is near. The believing Jews DID flee to the mountains in approx. 66 AD, and the great tribulation began. Jews were starved to the point where they ate their own children. Over 6 million Jews slaughtered, tortured, taken captive. The blood flowed to a horse's thigh. The war went on for years. The city of Jerusalem (the center of the world) was razed and their temple (the dwelling place of God) was completely demolished to the point where not a single stone was left. The Jews’ House was left desolate. No more sacrifices; no more priesthood. 

Finally, Matt. 24:30 speaks of the Son of man coming in/with a SIGN. That sign shall be the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and glory. There are so many OT scripture verses that describe God's power and glory as coming in the clouds, and his judgment with the darkening of the sun, blood moons, stars falling, etc. Then the elect will be gathered, which is another way of describing the catching up in 2 Thess. So I would ask others reading here, why would Jesus tell his hearers that "it is near; even at the doors" if it wasn't?

July 21 2022 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report