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What does the phrase mean, "God is not a respecter of persons"?


Acts 10:34 - 35

ESV - 34 So Peter opened his mouth and said: "Truly I understand that God shows no partiality. 35 But in every nation anyone who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him.

Clarify Share Report Asked February 17 2017 Mini raphael fleming

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Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
Peter made this comment after he had learned of the prior appearance of an angel to the Roman centurion Cornelius, who had directed Cornelius to send for Peter (Acts 10:1-8). Peter perceived that God's purpose in sending the angel to Cornelius had been for Peter to preach the gospel to Cornelius and his household.

This marked the first sharing of the gospel message with a Gentile (or non-Jew), and it indicated to Peter that it was God's will that Gentiles (as well as Jews) be accepted as followers of Christ.

Peter therefore said (as noted in the question), "Truly I perceive that God is not a respecter of persons," meaning (as indicated by other Bible translations of Acts 10:34 at http://www.biblehub.com) that God does not show any partiality or favoritism with respect to who could be saved through faith in Christ -- that both Jews and Gentiles who believed in Christ were now to be accepted as His followers.

February 18 2017 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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